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Related provisions for EG 19.34.20
21 - 40 of 1081 items.
Under section 169(1)(b) and section 131FA2 of the Act,
the FCA3 may
appoint an investigator to investigate any matter at the request of an overseas regulator4. The powers of the investigator appointed by the FCA3 (referred to here as the 'FCA's3 investigator') include the power to require persons to
attend at a specified time and place and answer questions (the compulsory
interview power).3233
Where the FCA3 appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator4 it may, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take
part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FCA3 may
only give a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 if it is satisfied that any information
obtained by an overseas regulator4 as a result of the interview will
be
The FCA3 may need to consider whether to use its direction power at two
stages of an investigation:3(1) at the same time that it considers
the request from the overseas regulator4 to appoint investigators;2(2) after it has appointed investigators,
either at the request of the overseas regulator4 or on the recommendation of the
investigators.2
Before making a direction under
section 169(7) or section
131FA2 the FCA3 will discuss and determine with the overseas
regulator4 how this statement of policy will
apply to the conduct of the interview, taking into account all the circumstances
of the case. Amongst other matters, the FCA3 will at this stage determine the extent to which the representative
of the overseas regulator4 will be able to participate in
the interview. The overseas regulator4 will be notified of this
The direction will contain the
identity of the representative of the overseas
regulator4 that is permitted to attend any
interview and the role that he will play in the interview. If the FCA3 envisages that there will be more than one interview in the course
of the investigation, the direction may also specify which interview(s) the representative is allowed to attend.232
In circumstances where an interview
is to be conducted as part of the investigation, the FCA's3 investigator will have conduct of the interview. In general,
the FCA's3 investigators
will be employees of the FCA3, but in appropriate cases the FCA3 may appoint persons who
are not its employees. In those cases, the FCA3 may choose to require that an FCA3 employee is present at the interview and may choose to appoint
that person as an investigator.333333
The FCA's3 investigator will act on behalf of the FCA3 and under its control. He may be instructed to permit the representative
of the overseas regulator4 to assist in the preparation of
the interview. Where the FCA3 considers it appropriate, it may permit the representative to
attend and ask questions of the interviewee in the course of the interview.
The interview will be conducted according to the terms of the direction and
the notification referred to in DEPP 7.2.6 G.332
If the direction does permit the
representative of an overseas regulator4 to attend the interview and ask
the interviewee questions, the FCA's3 investigator will retain control of the interview throughout.
Control of the interview means the following will apply:23(1) The FCA's3 investigator instigates and concludes the interview, introduces
everyone present and explains the procedure of the interview. He warns the
interviewee of the possible consequences of refusing to answer
The FCA3 will in general provide written notice of the appointment of
an investigator to the person under
investigation pursuant to the request of an overseas
regulator4 . Whether or not the interviewee
is the person under investigation,
the FCA's3 investigator
will inform the interviewee of the provisions under which he has been appointed,
the identity of the requesting authority and general nature of the matter
under investigation. The interviewee will also normally be informed
When the FCA's3 investigator has exercised the compulsory interview power, at
the outset of the interview the interviewee will be given an appropriate warning.
The warning, amongst other things, must state that the interviewee is obliged
to answer all questions put to them during the interview, including any put
by the representative of the overseas regulator4 . It will also state that in criminal
proceedings or proceedings for market abuse the FCA3 will
not use as evidence against
The FCA's3 investigator may decide which documents or other information
may be put to the interviewee, and whether it is appropriate to give the interviewee
sight of the documents before
the interview takes place. Where the overseas
regulator4 wishes to ask questions about documents during the interview and the FCA's3 investigator
wishes to inspect those documents before
the interview, he will be given the opportunity to do so. If the FCA's3 investigator wishes to inspect them
When the FCA's3 investigator has exercised the compulsory interview power, the FCA's3 investigator
will require the person attending
the interview to answer questions. Where appropriate, questions may also be
posed by the representative of the overseas
regulator4 . The interviewee will also be
required to answer these questions. The FCA's3 investigator may intervene at any stage during questioning by
the representative of the overseas regulator4.33232
Interviews will, in general, be
conducted in English. Where the interviewee's first language is not English,
at the request of the interviewee arrangements will be made for the questions
to be translated into the interviewee's first language and for his answers
to be translated back into English. If a translator is employed at the request
of the representative of the overseas regulator4 then the translation costs will
normally be met by the overseas regulator4. In any event,
All compulsory interviews will
be tape-recorded. The method of recording will be decided on and arranged
by the FCA's3 investigator.
Costs will be addressed similarly to that set out in the preceding paragraph.
The FCA3 will
not provide the overseas regulator4 with transcripts of the tapes
of interviews unless specifically agreed to, but copies of the tapes will
normally be provided where requested. The interviewee will be provided with
a copy of tapes of the interview but will
The interviewee may be accompanied
at the interview by a legal adviser or a non-legally qualified observer of
his choice. The costs of any representation will not be met by the FCA3. The
presence at the interview of a representative of the overseas
regulator4 may mean that the interviewee
wishes to be represented or accompanied by a person either
from or familiar with that regulator's jurisdiction. As far as practical the
arrangements for the interview should accommodate this
(1) If a member of the RDC has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which he is asked to participate he will disclose the conflict to the RDC Office, and disclose it:(a) in the case of the Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(b) in the case of a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman of the RDC, or if he is unavailable to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(c) in the case of any other member, to the Chairman or
If the RDC considers it relevant to its consideration, it may ask FCA1 staff to explain or provide any or all of the following:1(1) additional information about the matter (which FCA1 staff may seek by further investigation); or1(2) further explanation of any aspect of the FCA1 staff recommendation or accompanying papers; or1(3) information about FCA1 priorities and policies (including as to the FCA's view on the law or on the correct legal interpretation of provisions of the
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a warning noticeor a first supervisory notice:1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice or first supervisory notice, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure
1If the RDC proposes that the FCA should publish information about the matter to which a warning notice falling within section 391(1ZB) of the Act relates:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the statement it proposes the FCA should publish (warning notice statement);(2) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the warning notice statement it proposes the FCA should publish to be given to the persons to whom the warning notice was given or copied;(3) the proposed
1If the RDC decides that the FCA should publish a warning notice statement:(1) the RDC will notify the relevant parties (including the relevant FCA staff) in writing of that decision;2(2) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice statement; and(3) the FCA will make appropriate arrangements for the warning notice statement to be published.
(1) A warning notice or a first supervisory notice will (as required by the Act) specify the time allowed for making representations. This will not be less than 141 days.1(2) The FCA1 will also, when giving a warning notice or a first supervisory notice, specify a time within which the recipient is required to indicate whether he wishes to make oral representations.1
(1) The recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice may request an extension of the time allowed for making representations. Such a request must normally be made within seven days3of the notice being given.11(2) If a request is made, the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC will decide whether to allow an extension, and, if so, how much additional time is to be allowed for making representations. In reaching their 3decision they will take into account all relevant
(1) If the recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice indicates that he wishes to make oral representations, the RDC staff, in conjunction with the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, will fix a date or dates for a meeting at which the relevant RDC members will receive those representations.(2) In making those arrangements the RDC staff will draw the Chairman's or Deputy Chairman's attention to any particular issues about the timing of the meeting which
The chairman of the relevant meeting will ensure that the meeting is conducted so as to enable:(1) the recipient of the warning notice or first supervisory notice to make representations;(2) the relevant FCA1 staff to respond to those representations;1(3) the RDC members to raise with those present any points or questions about the matter (whether in response to particular representations or more generally about the matter); and(4) the recipient of the notice to respond to points
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a decision notice or a second supervisory notice:1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the notice which will include a brief summary of the key representations made and how they have been dealt with, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions, including whether the FCA1 is required to give a copy of the notice to a third
FCA1 staff responsible for recommending action to the RDC will continue to assess the appropriateness of the proposed action in the light of new information or representations they receive and any material change in the facts or circumstances relating to a particular matter. It may be therefore that they decide to give a notice of discontinuance to a person to whom a warning notice or decision notice has been given. The decision to give a notice of discontinuance does not require
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator9 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:99(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.99
9The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
The appropriate regulator9 will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.96
The appropriate regulator9 will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The appropriate regulator9 will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the appropriate regulator9 in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3999
In some cases, the appropriate regulator9 may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The appropriate regulator9 may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.99
If the appropriate regulator9 believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.9
Under section 138A(1) of the Act the appropriate regulator9 may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the appropriate regulator9 in exceptional circumstances where the appropriate regulator9 considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the appropriate regulator9 will inform the firms concerned that the waiver
For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 138D9 of the Act, the appropriate regulator9 would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.299
[deleted] 5
(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(1)]5(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(2)]5(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(3)]5(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.3R]5(5) [deleted]5(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.4.3R]5(7) [deleted
The FCA expects a firm to justify any low LGD estimates using analysis on volatility of sources of recovery, notably on collateral, and cures (see IFPRU 4.7.5 G). This includes:(1) recognising that the impact of collateral volatility on low LGDs is asymmetric, as surpluses over amounts owed need to be returned to borrowers and that this effect may be more pronounced when estimating downturn, rather than normal period LGDs; and(2) recognising the costs and discount rate associated
Where a firm wishes to include cures in its LGD estimates, the FCA expects it to do this on a cautious basis, with reference to both its current experience and how this is expected to change in downturn conditions. In particular, this involves being able to articulate clearly both the precise course of events that will allow such cures to take place and any consequences of such actions for other elements of its risk quantification. For example:(1) where cures are driven by the
To ensure that estimates of LGDs take into account the most up-to-date experience, the FCA expects a firm to take account of data for relevant incomplete workouts (ie, defaulted exposures for which the recovery process is still in progress, with the result that the final realised losses in respect of those exposures are not yet certain) (see article 179(1)(c) of the UK CRR2).
To ensure that sovereign LGD models are sufficiently conservative in view of the estimation error that may arise from the lack of data on losses to sovereigns, the FCA expects a firm to apply a 45% LGD floor to each unsecured exposure in the sovereign asset class (see article 179(1)(a) of the UK CRR2).
The FCA believes that an average reduction in property sales prices of 40% from their peak price, prior to the market downturn, forms an appropriate reference point when assessing downturn LGD for UK mortgage portfolios. This reduction captures both a fall in the value of the property due to house price deflation, as well as a distressed forced sale discount.
Where a firm adjusts assumed house price values within its LGD models to take account of current market conditions (for example, appropriate house price indices), the FCA recognises that realised falls in market values may be captured automatically. A firm adopting such approaches may remove observed house price falls from its downturn house price adjustment so as not to double count. A firm wishing to apply such an approach must seek the consent of the FCA and be able to demonstrate
To ensure that its LGD estimates are oriented towards downturn conditions, the FCA expects a firm to have a process through which it:(1) identifies appropriate downturn conditions for each IRB exposure class within each jurisdiction;(2) identifies adverse dependencies, if any, between default rates and recovery rates; and(3) incorporates adverse dependencies, if identified, between default rates and recovery rates in the firm's estimates of LGD in a manner that meets the requirements
To ensure that its LGD estimates incorporate material discount effects, the FCA expects a firm's methods for discounting cash flows to take account of the uncertainties associated with the receipt of recoveries for a defaulted exposure. For example, by adjusting cash flows to certainty-equivalents or by using a discount rate that embodies an appropriate risk premium; or by a combination of the two.
If a firm intends to use a discount rate that does not take full account of the uncertainty in recoveries, the FCA expects it to be able to explain how it has otherwise taken into account that uncertainty for the purposes of calculating LGDs. This can be addressed by adjusting cash flows to certainty-equivalents or by using a discount rate that embodies an appropriate risk premium for defaulted assets, or by a combination of the two (see article 5(2) of the UK CRR2).
The FCA expects a firm using advanced IRB approaches to have done the following in respect of wholesale LGD estimates:(1) applied LGD estimates at transaction level;(2) ensured that all LGD estimates (both downturn and non-downturn) are cautious, conservative and justifiable, given the paucity of observations. Under article 179(1)(a) of the UK CRR2, estimates must be derived using both historical experience and empirical evidence, and not be based purely on judgemental consideration.
The FCA uses a framework for assessing the conservatism of a firm's wholesale LGD models for which there are a low number of defaults. This framework is set out in IFPRU 4 Annex 2G (Wholesale LGD and EAD framework) and does not apply to sovereign LGD estimates which are floored at 45%. This framework is also in the process of being used to assess the calibration of a firm's material LGD-models for low-default portfolios.
In the following cases, the FCA expects a firm to determine the effect of applying the framework in IFPRU 4 Annex 2G (Wholesale LGD and EAD framework) to models which include LGD values that are based on fewer than 20 'relevant' data points (as defined in IFPRU 4 Annex 2G):(1) the model is identified for review by the FCA; or(2) the firm submits a request for approval for a material change to its LGD model.
Where an independent calculation approach is adopted for the calculation of unexpected loss on defaulted assets, the FCA expects a firm to ensure that estimates are at least equal, at a portfolio level, to a 100% risk weight, ie,1 8% capital requirement on the amount outstanding net of provisions (see article 181(1)(h) of the UK CRR2).
The extent to which a borrower's assets are already given as collateral will clearly affect the recoveries available to unsecured creditors. If the degree to which assets are pledged is substantial, this will be a material driver of LGDs on such exposures. Although potentially present in all transactions, the FCA expects a firm to be particularly aware of this driver in situations in which borrowing on a secured basis is the normal form of financing, leaving relatively few assets
The FCA expects a firm to take into account the effect of assets being substantially used as collateral for other obligations estimating LGDs for borrowers for which this is the case. The FCA expects a firm not to use unadjusted data sets that ignore this impact, and note that it is an estimate for downturn conditions that is normally required. In the absence of relevant data to estimate this effect, conservative LGDs potentially of 100% are expected to be used (see articles
1The FCA recognises that there are good reasons for firms wishing to carry out their own investigations. This might be for, for example, disciplinary purposes, general good management, or operational and risk control. The firm needs to know the extent of any problem, and it may want advice as to what immediate or short-term measures it needs to take to mitigate or correct any problems identified. The FCA encourages this proactive approach and does not wish to interfere with a
1A firm’s report – produced internally or by an external third party – can clearly assist the firm, but may also be useful to the FCA where there is an issue of regulatory concern. Sharing the outcome of an investigation can potentially save time and resources for both parties, particularly where there is a possibility of the FCA taking enforcement action in relation to a firm’s perceived misconduct or failing. This does not mean that firms are under any obligation to share the
1Work done or commissioned by the firm does not fetter the FCA's ability to use its statutory powers, for example to require a skilled person’s report under section 166 of the Act or to carry out a formal enforcement investigation; nor can a report commissioned by the firm be a substitute for formal regulatory action where this is needed or appropriate. But even if formal action is needed, it may be that a report could be used to help the FCA decide on the appropriate action to
1The FCA invites firms to consider, in particular, whether to discuss the commissioning and scope of a report with FCA staff where: (1) firms have informed the FCA of an issue of potential regulatory concern, as required by SUP 15; or (2) the FCA has indicated that an issue or concern has or may result in a referral to Enforcement.
1The FCA's approach in commenting on the proposed scope and purpose of the report will vary according to the circumstances in which the report is commissioned; it does not follow that the FCA will want to be involved in discussing the scope of a report in every situation. But if the firm anticipates that it will proactively disclose a report to the FCA in the context of an ongoing or prospective enforcement investigation, then the potential use and benefit to be derived from the
1Some themes or issues are common to any discussion about the potential use or value of a report to the FCA. These include: (1) to what extent the FCA will be able to rely on the report in any subsequent enforcement proceedings; (2) to what extent the FCA will have access to the underlying evidence or information that was relied upon in producing the report; (3) where legal privilege or other professional confidentiality is claimed over any material gathered or generated in the
1In certain circumstances the FCA may prefer that a firm does not commission its own investigation (whether an internal audit report or a report by external advisers) because action by the firm could itself be damaging to an FCA investigation. This is true in particular of criminal investigations, where alerting the suspects could have adverse consequences. For example, where the FCA suspects that individuals are abusing positions of trust within financial institutions and that
1How the results of an investigation are presented to the FCA may differ from case to case; the FCA acknowledges that different circumstances may call for different approaches. In this sense, one size does not fit all. The FCA will take a pragmatic and flexible approach when deciding how to receive the results of an investigation. However, if the FCA is to rely on a report as the basis for taking action, or not taking action, then it is important that the firm should be prepared
1The FCA is not able to require the production of “protected items”, as defined in the Act, but it is not uncommon for there to be disagreement with firms about the scope of this protection. Arguments about whether certain documents attract privilege tend to be time- consuming and delay the progress of an investigation. If a firm decides to give a report to the FCA, then the FCA considers that the greatest mutual benefit is most likely to flow from disclosure of the report itself
1For reasons that the FCA can understand, firms may seek to restrict the use to which a report can be put, or assert that any legal privilege is waived only on a limited basis and that the firm retains its right to assert legal privilege as the basis for non-disclosure in civil proceedings against a private litigant.
1The FCA understands that the concept of a limited waiver of legal privilege is not one which is recognised in all jurisdictions; the FCA considers that English law does permit such “limited waiver” and that legal privilege could still be asserted against third parties notwithstanding disclosure of a report to the FCA. However, the FCA cannot accept any condition or stipulation which would purport to restrict its ability to use the information in the exercise of the FCA's statutory
1This does not mean that information provided to the FCA is unprotected. The FCA is subject to strict statutory restrictions on the disclosure of confidential information (as defined in section 348 of the Act), breach of which is a criminal offence (under section 352 of the Act). Reports and underlying materials provided voluntarily to the FCA by a firm, whether covered by legal privilege or not, are confidential for these purposes and benefit from the statutory protections.
1Even in circumstances where disclosure of information would be permitted under the “gateways” set out in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations, the FCA will consider carefully whether it would be appropriate to disclose a report provided voluntarily by a firm. The FCA appreciates that firms feel strongly about the importance of maintaining confidentiality, and that firms are more likely to volunteer information to the
To enable the FCA to be satisfied that the issuer and the proposed owner will comply with requirements imposed on the issuer or owner, as the case may be, by or under the RCB Regulations, the applicant should use the application form to provide relevant details of the proposed covered bond or programme and demonstrate how each of the requirements will be complied with.
(1) The FCA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FCA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from
In relation to registration of an issuer of regulated covered bonds, the FCA will need to be satisfied that the issuer's compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system has been adequate and does not give rise to any material cause for concern over the issuer's ability to issue regulated covered bonds in compliance with the RCB Regulations.
The FCA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
The risk factors which the FCA will take into account in assessing the issuer's and owner's compliance with Regulations 17(2)(d) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 23(2) (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) will include credit risk of the assets, concentration risk, market risk and counterparty risk.
(1) The credit risk of an asset is the risk of loss if another party fails to perform its obligations or fails to perform them in a timely fashion.(2) Where, for example, the asset pool includes residential mortgages the relevant factors which the FCA may consider include: (a) whether the asset pool contains (or could contain) loans made to individuals who have been made bankrupt or have had court judgments made against them;(b) the extent to which the asset pool contains (or
Concentration risk is the risk of loss from exposures being limited in number or variety. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include:(1) the level of granularity of the asset pool (i.e. what is the number and size distribution of assets in the pool); (2) whether the borrowers or collateral is unduly concentrated in a particular industry, sector, or geographical region.
Market risk is the risk that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include whether the hedging agreements (defined in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations as agreements entered into or assets held as protection against possible financial loss) adequately protect against any adverse mismatched cash-flows due to changes in market variables.
Counterparty risk is the risk that the counterparty to a transaction could default before the final settlement of the transactions cash flows. The relevant factors the FCA may consider include whether the:(1) counterparty has an appropriate credit rating;(2) counterparty can unilaterally terminate the hedging agreement, and if so under what circumstances;(3) contractual arrangements contain appropriate termination procedures (for example, what provisions apply in the event of
(1) The FCA will assess each risk factor separately and then assess any inter-dependencies and correlations to form a judgment on the quality of the asset pool as a whole. For example, an asset pool which is of high credit quality and so low risk due to a combination of factors such as owner occupation, low income multiples, full valuation methodologies, and a strong payments track record, may permit another factor such as high loan-to-value ratios, that would otherwise be considered
The FCA expects the issuer to demonstrate that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme that adequately deal with:(1) the identification and rectification of any breach of Regulations 17(2) (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations;(2) the appointment of replacements for parties, for example servicers, cash managers or paying agents; and(3) the orderly winding-up
The FCA expects the issuer to demonstrate, as part of showing that Regulations 17 (general requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) and 24 (requirements on owner relating to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations will be complied with, that there are provisions in the covered bond or programme which enable the views and interests of investors in the regulated covered bond to be taken account of in an appropriate and timely way by a suitably qualified, adequately resourced,
(1) The FCA expects legal advice to deal adequately with at least the following matters in relation to the actual or proposed arrangements:(a) whether the transfer of the assets to the owner would be upheld in the event of liquidation or administration, or similar collective insolvency proceedings, of the issuer or the transferor (if different from the issuer);(b) the risk of the transfer of an asset to the owner being re-characterised as the creation of a security interest;(c)
(1) The FCA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures (which
1Assets which would be eligible for inclusion in a liquidity buffer under BIPRU 12.7 can be liquid assets for the purposes of limb (a) of the definition of liquid assets in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations. The FCA will also expect that liquid assets which consist of deposits should be held in the same currency or currencies as the regulated covered bonds issued by the issuer.
A person wanting to provide sponsor services4, and to be included on the list of sponsors, must apply to the FCA for approval as a sponsor by submitting the following to the Sponsor Supervision Team at the FCA's address:4(1) a completed Sponsor Firm Application Form; and4(2) [deleted]44(3) the application fee set out in 1FEES 31[Note: The Sponsor's Firm Application Form can be found on the UKLA section of the FCA's website.]4
When considering an application for approval as a sponsor the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;(2) request that the applicant or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application; and6(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application.22(4) [deleted]22[Note:
The FCA will approve a person as a sponsor only if it is satisfied that the person :4(1) is 4an authorised person or a member of a designated professional body;(2) is 4competent to provide8sponsor services4 in accordance with LR 88; and8(3) has appropriate 4systems and controls in place to carry out its role as a sponsor in accordance with LR 884.488
7Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the employees of the person applying to be a sponsor whom it is proposed will perform sponsor services have no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the person applying to be a sponsor
8Where a person wishes to apply for approval as a sponsor to provide a limited range of sponsor services, it may do so on the basis that the FCA will impose a limitation or restriction on its approval (in accordance with section 88 of the Act). In such circumstances, the FCA will assess whether the person satisfies LR 8.6.5R (2) and LR 8.6.5R (3) taking into consideration the sponsor services to which the approval, as formally limited or restricted by the FCA, will relate.
A sponsor, or a 8person48applying for approval as a sponsor, will not satisfy LR 8.6.5R (2) unless it has:4888(1) 8submitted a sponsor declaration to the FCA:(a) for a person applying for approval as a sponsor, within three years of the date of its application; and(b) for a sponsor, within the previous three years; and(2) 8a sufficient number of employees with the skills , knowledge and expertise necessary for it to:(a) provide sponsor services in accordance with LR 8.3; (b)
8To determine whether a sponsoror a person applying for approval as a sponsoris able to satisfy LR 8.6.7R (1)(a), the FCA may consider whether any of the person's employees have had material involvement in the provision of sponsor services that have required the submission of a sponsor declaration within the previous three years.
8In assessing whether a sponsor or a person applying for approval as a sponsor satisfies LR 8.6.7R (2) the FCA will consider a variety of factors including:(1) the nature, scale and complexity of its business;(2) the diversity of its operations; (3) the volume and size of transactions it undertakes;(4) the volume and size of transactions it anticipates undertaking in the following year; and (5) the degree of risk associated with the transactions it undertakes or anticipates
4In assessing whether a sponsor or a8person applying for approval as a sponsor can demonstrate it is competent in the areas required under LR 8.6.7R (2), the FCA may also take into account, where relevant, the guidance or advice on the listing rules or disclosure requirements9 and transparency rules5the sponsor or8person has given in circumstances other than in providing sponsor services.885
When considering a sponsor's ability to comply with LR 8.6.12 R, the FCA will consider8 a variety of factors, including:8(1) the nature, scale and complexity of its business;(2) the diversity of its operations;(3) the volume and size of the transactions it undertakes;4(4) the volume and size of the transactions it anticipates undertaking in the following year; and44(5) the degree of risk associated with the transactions it undertakes or anticipates undertaking in the following
6A sponsor must have effective arrangements to create and retain for six years accessible records which are sufficient to be capable of demonstrating that it has provided sponsor services and otherwise complied with its obligations under LR 8 including:88(1) where a declaration is to be submitted to the FCA:88(a) under LR 8.4.3R (1), LR 8.4.9R (1), LR 8.4.13R (1), LR 8.4.14R (2) or LR 8.4.17 R; or (b) pursuant to an appointment under LR 8.2.1R (5);the basis of each declaration
6In considering whether a sponsor has satisfied the requirements regarding sufficiency of records in LR 8.6.16A R, the FCA will consider whether the records would enable a person with general knowledge of the sponsor regime but no specific knowledge of the actual sponsor service undertaken to understand and verify the basis upon which material judgments have been made throughout the provision of the sponsor service.
4For each 8sponsor service requiring the submission of a document to the FCA or contact with the FCA, a sponsor must:8(1) at the time of submission or on first making contact with the FCA8notify the FCAof the name and contact details of a key 8contact within8 the sponsor for that matter8; and8888(2) ensure that its key8contact : 88(a) has8 sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed matter8to be able to answer queries from the FCA about it; 888(b)
To the extent that a firm makes available multiple facilities, the FCA expects the firm to be able to demonstrate:(1) how they deal with the fact that exposures on one facility may become exposures under another on which the losses are ultimately incurred; and (2) the impact of its approach on its own funds requirements.
The FCA expects firms using own estimates of EAD to have done the following in respect of EAD estimates:(1) applied EAD estimates at the level of the individual facility;(2) where there is a paucity of observations, ensured that all EAD estimates are cautious, conservative and justifiable. In accordance with article 179(1)(a) of the UK CRR2, estimates must be derived using both historical experience and empirical evidence, and must not be based purely on judgemental consideration.
In the following cases, the FCA expects firms to determine the effect of applying the framework in IFPRU 4 Annex 2G (Wholesale LGD and EAD framework) to models which include EAD values that are based on fewer than 20 'relevant' data points (as defined in IFPRU 4 Annex 2G):(1) the model is identified for review by the FCA; or(2) the firm submits a request for approval for a material change to its EAD model.
The FCA expects the time horizon for additional drawings to be the same as the time horizon for defaults. This means that EAD estimation need cover only additional drawings that might take place in the next year, such that:(1) no own funds requirements need be held against facilities, or proportions of facilities that cannot be drawn down within the next year; and(2) where facilities can be drawn down within the next year, firms may, in principle, reduce their estimates to the
In cases where firms estimate conversion factors (CFs) directly using a reference data set that includes a significant number of high CFs as a result of very low undrawn limits at the observation date, the FCA expects firms to:(1) investigate the distribution of realised CFs in the reference data set;(2) base the estimated CF on an appropriate point along that distribution, that results in the choice of a CF appropriate for the exposures to which it is being applied and consistent
If the availability of a facility is subject to a further credit assessment by the firm, an EAD/CF may not be required. However, the FCA expects this to be the case only if the subsequent credit assessment was of substantially equivalent rigour to that of the initial credit approval and if this includes a re-rating or a confirmation of the rating of the borrower.
Firms are not expected to include in their EAD/CF estimates the probability of increases in limits between observation and default date. If the reference data set includes the impact of such increases, the FCA expects firms to be able to adjust their estimates accordingly with the aim of assessing what the exposure would have been at default if the limit had not been increased.
The FCA expects firms to investigate the incidence of exposures existing at default that arise from products or relationships that are not intended to result in a credit exposure and, consequently, have no credit limit established against them and are not reflected in their estimates of EAD. Unless such exposures are immaterial, the FCA expects firms to estimate a Pillar 1 own funds requirement on a portfolio basis to such exposures.
Exposures include not only principal amounts borrowed under facilities but also interest accrued which will fluctuate between payment dates. To ensure proper coverage of interest, the FCA expects firms to take the following approach:(1) accrued interest to date should be included in current exposure for performing exposures;(2) firms may choose whether estimated increases in accrued interest up to the time of default should be included in LGD or EAD;(3) in the estimation of EAD,
The FCA considers that there is scope within the UK CRR2 for a firm to recognise on-balance sheet netting (including in respect of cross-currency balances) through EAD as an alternative to LGD1 in cases where a firm meets the general conditions for on-balance1 sheet netting, as set out in article 205 of1 the UK CRR2. 11
For the CF on undrawn limits, this may be applied on the basis of the net limit, provided the conditions in the UK CRR2 for the use of net limits are met. However, firms are reminded that the purpose of the measure is to estimate the amount that would be outstanding in the event of a default. This implies that their ability, in practice, to constrain the drawdown of credit balances will be particularly tested. Moreover, the FCA expects the appropriate conversion factor to be
Firms are reminded that, since the basis of EAD estimation is that default by the borrower is expected to take place in a one-year time horizon and quite possibly in downturn conditions, the FCA expects any reduction in their CF in anticipation of syndication to take account of this scenario (see article 4(56) of the UK CRR2).
(1) This section applies to an IFPRU investment firm.(2) This section does not apply to an exempt IFPRU commodities firm if the conditions in (2) are met.(3) The conditions are:(a) article 498 of the UK CRR1 (Exemptions for commodities dealers) applies to it;(b) the exempt IFPRU commodities firm is not a member of a FCA consolidation group or non-UK sub-group1;(c) each investment firm in the group that the exempt IFPRU commodities firm belongs to meets the conditions in article
This section contains:(1) rules that exercise the discretion afforded to the FCA as competent authority under article 18 of the UK CRR2 (Methods of prudential consolidation); and(2) guidance on the criteria that the FCA will take into account when considering whether to grant a permission to a firm on a case-by-case basis for the individual consolidation method under article 9 of the UK CRR2 (Individual consolidation method).
In carrying out the calculations for the purposes of Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the UK CRR2 (Prudential consolidation), a firm (for whom the FCA is the consolidating supervisor) must include the proportion according to the share of capital held of participations in institutions and financial institutions managed by an undertaking included in the consolidation together with one or more undertakings not included in the consolidation, where those undertakings' liability is
In carrying out the calculations for the purposes of Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the UK CRR2 (Prudential consolidation), a firm (for whom the FCA is the consolidating supervisor) must carry out a full consolidation of any undertaking with whom it has an article 18(5) relationship.[Note: article 18(5) of the UK CRR2]
Article 9(2) of the UK CRR2 (Individual consolidation method) requires a firm, which is a parent institution, to demonstrate fully to the FCA, as competent authority, that there are no material practical or legal impediments to the prompt transfer of own funds of the subsidiary referred to in article 9(1) of the , or repayment of liabilities when due by that subsidiary to the firm.
The FCA will assess an application for individual consolidation against articles 9 and 396(2) (Compliance with large exposure requirements) of the UK CRR2 on a case-by-case basis. The FCA will assess whether it is still appropriate to permit the treatment if doing so risks conflict with its statutory objectives. The FCA will apply a high level of scrutiny to applications under article 9 of the UK CRR2, consistent with the previous solo consolidation regime.
When making its assessment, the FCA will consider whether any minority interest may represent an impediment of any kind to the prompt transfer of own funds or repayment of liabilities from the subsidiary to the parent undertaking. To reassure the FCA, the parent institution should demonstrate that any minority interest in a subsidiary will not result in the potential blocking or delay of prompt transfer of own funds or repayment of liabilities. Therefore, it may be possible for
The FCA will consider the non-exhaustive criteria below when determining whether the condition in article 9(2) of the UK CRR2 is met:(1) the speed with which funds can be transferred or liabilities repaid to the firm and the simplicity of the method for the transfer or repayment; (2) whether there are any interests other than those of the firm in the subsidiary and what impact those other interests may have on the firm's control over the subsidiary and the ability of the firm
The FCA will assess applications to exclude entities from the scope of prudential consolidation against article 19(2) of the UK CRR2 on a case-by-case basis. The FCA will only grant this treatment with respect to undertakings where one of the conditions in article 19(2) is met. The FCA will still make a judgement as to whether it is appropriate to grant this treatment even where one of the conditions in article 19(2) is met.
Article 113(6) of the UK CRR2 (Intra-group credit risk exemption) permits a firm, subject to conditions, to apply a 0% risk-weighting for exposures to certain entities within its FCAconsolidation group, namely its parent undertaking, its own subsidiaries and subsidiaries of its parent undertaking. Article 400(1)(f) of the UK CRR2 then fully exempts such exposures from the large exposures limit stipulated in article 395(1) of the UK CRR2 (Limits to large exposures).
The FCA will assess core UK group applications against article 113(6) on a case-by-case basis. The FCA expects to approve this treatment for core UK groupundertakings if the conditions stipulated in article 113(6) are met. A firm should note that the FCA will still make a wider judgement whether it is appropriate to grant this treatment even where the conditions in article 113(6) are met. It is the FCA's intention to continue to apply a high level of scrutiny to applications under
In relation to article 113(6)(d), the FCA expects the condition to be satisfied if the counterparty is: (1) incorporated in the UK; or(2) an undertaking of a type that falls within the scope of the Council Regulation of 29 May 2000 on insolvency proceedings (Regulation 1346/2000/EC) and it is established in the UK other than by incorporation, and if the firm can demonstrate that the counterparty's centre of main interests is situated in the UK within the meaning of that Regul
In relation to article 113(6)(e), the FCA will consider the following non-exhaustive criteria when assessing whether this condition has been met:(1) the speed with which funds can be transferred or liabilities repaid to the firm and the simplicity of the method for the transfer or repayment. As part of the FCA's overall assessment, it would consider ownership of 100% of the subsidiary as one of the indicators that prompt transfer of own funds is likely to be achieved;(2) whether
When demonstrating how article 113(6)(e) of the UK CRR2 is met, the FCA considers that, for a counterparty which is not a firm, the application should include a legally binding agreement between the firm and the counterparty. This agreement will be to promptly, on demand, by the firm increase the firm'sown funds by an amount required to ensure that the firm complies with the provisions contained in Part Two of the UK CRR2 (Own funds) and any other requirements relating to capital
For the purpose of article 113(6)(e), the FCA considers that the agreement to increase the firm'sown funds may be limited to capital resources available to the undertaking and may reasonably exclude such amount of capital resources that, if transferred to the firm, would cause the undertaking to become balance sheet insolvent in the manner contemplated in section 123(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986.
1The FCA, together with several other UK authorities, has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act to enforce breaches of consumer protection law. Where a breach has been committed, the FCA will liaise with other authorities, particularly the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to determine which authority is best placed to take enforcement action. The FCA would generally expect to be the most appropriate authority to deal with breaches by authorised firms in relation
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Schedule 132 infringements and as a “Schedule 132 enforcer” which gives the FCA and other Schedule 132 enforcers additional powers in relation to Schedule 132 infringements under the CRA2.
1As a designated enforcer, the FCA has the power to apply to the courts for an enforcement order which requires a person who has committed a domestic or Schedule 132 infringement or, as to the latter, is likely to commit such an infringement: (1) not to engage, including through a company and, as to a domestic infringement, whether or not in the course of business, in the conduct which constituted, or is likely to constitute, the infringement; (2) to publish the order and/or a
1The FCA may also apply, if necessary without notice, for interim enforcement orders where immediate temporary prohibition of the relevant conduct is expedient pending full consideration by the court. Such interim orders can also be sought pre-emptively in relation to Schedule 132 infringements, but again only preventing conduct in the course of business.
1The FCA’s investigative powers in support of its Enterprise Act enforcement powers are set out in Schedule 5 to the CRA. The FCA can, under Schedule 5, require any person to provide it with information which will enable it to (i) exercise or consider exercising its functions as an enforcer; or (ii) determine whether a person is complying with an enforcement order, an interim enforcement order or an undertaking given as described below. If the FCA requires a person to provide
1Before the FCA may apply for an enforcement order, including an interim enforcement order, it must: (1) give notice to the CMA of its intention to apply for an enforcement order; and (2) unless the application relates to breach of an undertaking given to the court (other than one to provide information), consult the person against whom the enforcement order would be made.
1The aim of consultation is to ensure that any action taken is necessary and proportionate, and to ensure that businesses are given a reasonable opportunity to put things right before the courts become involved. The consultation period starts when the person receives the FCA's request for consultation and runs whether or not that person agrees to be consulted and/or is available for consultation.
1In addition to its powers as a designated enforcer under the Enterprise Act, the FCA also has powers, in its capacity as a “Schedule 132 enforcer” under the CRA2 and, therefore, only in respect of Schedule 132 infringements, to enter commercial premises with or without a warrant. The FCA must give at least two working days’ notice of its intention to enter such premises without a warrant unless that is not reasonably practicable. If the FCA cannot give a notice in advance, it
1The FCA anticipates that its powers under the Act will be adequate to address the majority of breaches which it would also be able to enforce under the Enterprise Act and that there will therefore be limited cases in which it would seek to use its powers as an Enterprise Act enforcer. Where the FCA does use its powers under the Enterprise Act, it will have regard to the enforcement guidelines which are published on the CMA’s website.2323www.gov.uk/governmentorganisations
1The FCA may apply for such an order where a criminal investigation has been started or where proceedings have started but not concluded; in either case there must be reasonable cause to believe that the defendant has benefited from criminal conduct. In this context, a person benefits from criminal conduct if he obtains property or a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct that would be an offence if it took place in England or Wales, regardless of whether
If a person performs an FCA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties), if the FCA is satisfied that:(1) a person (“P”) has at any time performed an FCA controlled function without approval; and(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing an FCA controlled function without approval;it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers
Outsourcing arrangements [deleted]5
Where the notification of an appointed representative (SUP 12.7.1 R) is linked to an application for approval (SUP 10A.13 (Applications for approval and withdrawing an application for approval)), any delay in receiving the notification under SUP 12.7.1 R may delay the FCA's approval of the individuals employed by that appointed representative who will be performing FCA controlled functions for the firm.
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
The FCA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice (see DEPP 2). The FCA will deal with cases more quickly than this whenever circumstances allow and will try to meet the standard response times published on the website and in its Annual Report. However, if an application is incomplete when received, or the FCA has knowledge that, or reason to believe that, the information is incomplete, then the processing time will
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
The FCA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the FCA candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the FCA controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the FCA that the FCA candidate is fit and proper to perform the FCA controlled function applied for.
In the3 case of a senior staff committee,3 the
decision will be taken by FCA3 staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the
evidence on which the decision is based
or by two or more FCA staff
who include a person not directly involved in establishing that evidence,3 except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.33
A senior
staff committee will consist of such FCA3 staff members as an FCA4 senior executive committee may from time to time determine. An FCA4 senior
executive committee may authorise the chairman of a senior
staff committee to select its other members. A senior staff committee is accountable for
its decisions to an FCA4 senior executive committee and, through it, to the FCA3 Board.33333333
A senior
staff committee may operate through standing or specific sub-committees
to consider particular decisions or classes of decision, for which accountability
will lie through the committee. Each meeting of a senior
staff committee, or sub-committee, will include:(1) an individual with authority to
act as its chairman; and(2) at least two other members.
Statutory
notice decisions to be taken under executive procedures and decisions referred
to in DEPP
2.5.6A G,3 and not falling within the responsibility of a senior
staff committee, will be taken by an individual FCA3 staff member. The decision will be:3(1) made by an executive director of
the FCA3 Board
or his delegate (who will be of at least the level of associate);3(2) on the recommendation of an FCA3 staff
member of at least the level of associate; and3(3) with the benefit
An FCA3 staff member who considers that a statutory
notice decision or
a decision referred to in DEPP
2.5.6A G3 should be taken above his own
level is free to refer that decision to a more senior level. If an FCA3 staff
member consults another staff member about a decision, the decision remains
the independent decision of the FCA3 staff member who consults his colleague, unless it is agreed
that the decision should instead be taken by the colleague, and the colleague
has the delegated
If an individual responsible for
a decision under executive procedures (or
a more senior FCA3 staff
member with responsibilities in relation to the decision concerned) considers
that it warrants collective consideration, the individual may:3(1) take the decision himself, following
consultation with other FCA3 staff members, as above; or3(2) refer it to a senior
staff committee, which will take the decision itself.
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which they are4
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
3Broadly, FCA staff
responsible for taking decisions referred to in DEPP
2.5.6A G will follow
a procedure similar to that described at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for the RDC (subject to the exceptions in DEPP 4.1.13 G (1) to DEPP 4.1.13 G (5) which also reflects that these decisions
are not statutory notice decisions.
For the purpose of LR 5.6.4R (2), the FCA considers that the following factors are indicators of a fundamental change:(1) the extent to which the transaction will change the strategic direction or nature of its business; or(2) whether its business will be part of a different industry sector following the completion of the transaction; or(3) whether its business will deal with fundamentally different suppliers and end users.
A shell company6, or in the case of a shell company6with a premium listing, its sponsor, must contact the FCA as early as possible:(1) before announcing a reverse takeover which has been agreed or is in contemplation, to discuss whether a suspension of listing is appropriate; or (2) where details of the reverse takeover have leaked, to request a suspension.
Examples of where the FCA will consider that a reverse takeover is in contemplation include situations where:(1) the shell company6 has approached the target's board;(2) the shell company6 has entered into an exclusivity period with a target; or(3) the shell company6 has been given access to begin due diligence work (whether or not on a limited basis).
Generally, when a reverse takeover between a shell company and a target6 is announced or leaked, there will be insufficient publicly available information about the proposed transaction and the shell company6 will be unable to assess accurately its financial position and inform the market accordingly. In this case, the FCA will often consider that suspension will be appropriate, as set out in LR 5.1.2G (3) and (4). However, if the FCA is satisfied that there is sufficient publicly
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient information in the market about the propos ed transaction if: (1) the target has shares or certificates representing equity securities admitted to a regulated market; and(2) the shell company6 makes an announcement stating that the target has complied with the disclosure requirements applicable on that regulated market and providing details of where information disclosed pursuant to those requirements can be obtaine
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction if the target has securities admitted to an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market and the shell company6: (1) confirms, in a form acceptable to the FCA, that the disclosure requirements in relation to financial information and inside information of the investment exchange or trading platform on which the target'ssecurities
Where the target in a reverse takeover by a shell company6 is not subject to a public disclosure regime, or if the target has securities admitted on an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market but the shell company6 is not able to give the confirmation and make the announcement contemplated by LR 5.6.12 G, the FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction such that
Where the FCA has agreed that a suspension is not necessary as a result of an announcement made for the purpose of LR 5.6.15 G the shell company6 must comply with the obligation under article 17(1) of the Market Abuse Regulation3 on the basis that the target already forms part of the enlarged group.
Where an issuer acquires the shares or certificates representing equity securities of a target with a different listing category from its own and the issuer wishes to maintain its existing listing category, the FCA will generally be satisfied that a cancellation is not required on completion of a reverse takeover if: (1) the issuer will continue to be eligible for its existing listing category following completion of the transaction;(2) the issuer provides an eligibility letter
The FCA will generally be satisfied that a cancellation is not required on completion of a reverse takeover if the target is listed with a different listing category from that of the issuer and the issuer wishes to transfer its listing to a different listing category in conjunction with the acquisition and the issuer as enlarged by the relevant acquisition complies with the relevant requirements of LR 5.4A to transfer to a different listing category.
(1) 5The FCA may by notice in writing given to a sponsor require it to provide specified documents or specified information to the FCA.11(2) The sponsor must as soon as practicable provide to the FCA any documents or information that it has been required to provide under (1).11(3) This rule applies only to documents or information reasonably required by the FCA in connection with the performance of its functions in relation to a sponsor or a company that has appointed a spons
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
A sponsor must provide to the FCA on or after the first business day of January in each year but no later than the last business day of January in each year:77(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R; and5(1A) for each of the criteria in that rule, evidence8 of the basis upon which it considers that it meets that criterion8.588(2) [deleted]55(3) [deleted]55(4) [deleted]55
A sponsor must notify the FCA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) 8(a) 8the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R or becomes aware of any matter which, in its reasonable opinion, would be relevant to the FCA in considering whether the sponsor continues to comply with LR 8.6.6 R; or(b) 8the sponsor becomes aware of any fact or circumstance relating to the sponsor or any of its employees engaged in the provision of sponsor services
8Where a sponsor is of the opinion that notwithstanding the circumstances giving rise to a notification obligation under LR 8.7.8 R, it continues to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R, it must include in its notification to the FCA a statement to that effect and the basis for its opinion.
8Examples of when a sponsor should submit a cancellation request pursuant to LR 8.7.22 R include, but are not limited to:(1) situations where the sponsor ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R and, following a notification made under LR 8.7.8 R, there are no ongoing discussions with the FCA which could lead to the conclusion that the sponsor remains eligible; or(2) where there is a change of control of the sponsor or any
A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the sponsor's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the cancellation to take effect;4(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not provide any sponsor services8 as of the date the request is submitted to the FCA; and8(5) the name and contact details of the person at the sponsor with whom
10A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be suspended must be in writing and must include: (1) the sponsor's name; (2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the suspension to take effect;(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not provide any sponsor services as of the date the request is submitted to the FCA; and(5) the name and contact details of the person at the sponsor with whom
11A sponsor may wish to consider submitting a suspension request under LR 8.7.25 R where the sponsor:(1) ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R; (2) has notified the FCA in accordance with LR 8.7.8 R;(3) is having ongoing discussions with the FCA regarding remedial action; and(4) is undertaking remedial action which may result in the sponsor being able to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval in accordance with LR 8.6.6
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
(1) Section 60(2A) of the Act (Applications for approval) says that, if a firm is applying for approval from the FCA or the PRA for a person to perform a designated senior management function, the regulator to which the application is being made must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the firm which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function. (2) That statement
(1) This section is about the FCA's requirements for statements of responsibilities.(2) However, in the case of a PRA-authorised person,6 where applications and notifications relate both to FCA-designated senior management functions and to PRA ones, the regulators’ requirements are consistent with each other.(3) The general material in this section (SUP 10C.11.13D5 to SUP 10C.11.35G) applies to statements of responsibilities submitted in all the cases covered by this section.
(1) SUP 10C.10 (Application for approval and withdrawing an application for approval) explains the procedures for applying for approval.(2) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how applications for approval should be submitted.(3) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about including statements of responsibilities in applications for approval apply in different situations.
Under section 62A of the Act, a firm must provide the FCA with a revised statement of responsibilities if there has been any significant change in the responsibilities of an FCA-approved SMF manager. More precisely:(1) if a firm has made an application (which was granted) to the FCA for approval for a person to perform an FCA-designated senior management function; (2) the application contained, or was accompanied by, a statement of responsibilities; and(3) since the granting of
(1) This paragraph sets out non-exhaustive examples of potential changes which, in the FCA's view, may be significant and thus require the submission of a revised statement of responsibilities.(2) A variation of the FCA-approved SMF manager's approval, either at the firm's request or at the FCA's or (in the case of a
PRA-authorised person),6PRA's initiative, resulting in the imposition, variation or removal of a condition or time limit, may involve a significant change.(3) Fulfilling
(1) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how revised statements of responsibilities should be submitted.(2) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about submitting revised statements of responsibilities apply in different situations.(3) In particular, the table in SUP 10C.11.19G gives examples of how SUP 10C.11.7D(2) and (3) work5.
(1) See SUP 10C.13 (Variation of conditional and time-limited approvals) for more details about applications to vary an approval.(2) SUP 10C.15 (Forms and other documents and how to submit them to the FCA) explains how applications to vary an approval should be submitted.(3) See the table in SUP 10C.11.19G for examples of how the requirements of this section about submitting statements of responsibilities with applications to vary an approval apply in different situations.
(1) SUP 10C.11.13D means that, at any time, a firm should have a single document for an FCA-approved SMF manager5 that:(a) contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which that SMF manager has approval; and(b) where relevant, contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which the firm is applying for approval.(2) (In the case of a PRA-authorised person), the6 document in (1) should cover
Table: Examples5 of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work
1Example |
Comments |
(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5. |
There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions. The combined document should be included with the application for approval. |
(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering reporting function. Both firms are SMCR firms5. |
There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm. This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group. |
(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. |
(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering reporting function5. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated. |
(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated. |
(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. |
The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application. The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval. |
(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5 is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering reporting function5. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions. |
(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals. The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated. |
(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering reporting function5 and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The answer to example (5) applies. The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that: (1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function; (2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function5; and (3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5. |
(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5. A then ceases to perform the money laundering reporting function5 but continues to perform the executive director function.5 |
The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the money laundering reporting function5; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function and reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering reporting function5. |
(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function5 and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the PRA function; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function5. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA. |
(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering reporting function5 for the same firm. The application is rejected. |
The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval. If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones5 clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away. In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J. In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document. |
(13) A has approval to perform the money laundering reporting function5. Later, A is to be appointed as an executive director5 for the same firm. This will not result in any significant5 changes to A’s duties in the money laundering reporting function5. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role in the money laundering reporting function5 since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment as executive director5. |
The answer for example (4) applies. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties in the money laundering role as well as covering A’s appointment to perform the executive director function. It does not matter that the changes to A’s money laundering role5 are not significant. |
(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function5. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change. The firm is a PRA-authorised person.6 |
The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions. It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. |
2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary3 of firm X. Firm X is an overseas SMCR firm that is not an EEA SMCR firm5 and firm3 Y is a UK SMCR firm5. Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive director function5. 3 |
There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm. |
7(16) An FCA-approved SMF manager goes on or returns from a temporary absence of longer than 12 weeks. |
The firm must submit: (a) Form D (SUP 10C Annex 6R); (b) Form J (SUP 10C Annex 9D); and (c) an updated statement of responsibilities document (SUP 10C Annex 10D). |
Note:5 The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D.5 |
|
(1) A complete set of current statement of responsibilities means all statements of responsibilities that the firm has provided to the FCA or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA as revised under section 62A of the Act and this chapter5.(2) A statement of responsibilities is not current if the person in question no longer performs any of the controlled functions5 to which it relates.
(1) The definition of every FCA-designated senior management function contains a responsibility which is inherent, inseparable from and intrinsically built into the specific role. (2) In many ways, this inherent responsibility is the most important responsibility of any given SMF manager, as it provides a rationale as to why that specific function is subject to pre-approval by the FCA in the first place.(3) Even where an SMF manager has not been allocated any other responsibilities
(1) The FCA may request a firm to include specific responsibility for a regulatory outcome in the statement of responsibilities of the relevant SMF managers. (2) For example, where the FCA asks a firm to take remediation action following an internal or supervisory review or a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) and considers it appropriate for an SMF manager to take responsibility for that action, it may ask the firm to add an additional, customised,
(1) Where:(a) an FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility is divided or shared between several SMF managers5; or(b) any function allocated under SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility) is shared between several SMF managers (if that chapter applies to the firm)5;25the statement of responsibilities for each SMF manager should:(c) explain why this has been done; and(d) give full details of the arrangements, including the names
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4
Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4 |
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(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
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(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
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4(f) |
the resilience of its trading systems; |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
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4(g) |
the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes; |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading] |
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4(h) |
the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress; |
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4(i) |
the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls; |
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4(j) |
the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous; |
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4(k) |
the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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4(l) |
the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed; |
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[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems] |
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4(m) |
the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached; |
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4(n) |
the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and |
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4(o) |
the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions] |
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4(3) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must - |
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4(a) |
establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and |
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4(b) |
monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument. |
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4(4) |
For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing. |
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4(5) |
The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks. |
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4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must - |
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4(a) |
have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”); |
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4(b) |
have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; |
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4(c) |
monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements; |
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4(d) |
inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and |
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4(e) |
provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2. |
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4(2) |
A market making agreement must specify- |
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4(a) |
the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity; |
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4(b) |
where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b); |
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4(c) |
any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and |
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4(d) |
where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b). |
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4(3) |
For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if - |
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4(a) |
the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues; |
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4(b) |
the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and |
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4(c) |
the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market. |
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4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must be able to - |
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4(a) |
temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and |
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4(b) |
in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction. |
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4(2) |
For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account - |
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4(a) |
the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses; |
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4(b) |
the nature of the trading venue market model; and |
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4(c) |
the types of users, |
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4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading. |
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4(3) |
The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA. |
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4(4) |
If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in the United Kingdom6 in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications] |
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4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access |
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4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must - |
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4(1) |
(a) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant - |
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4(i) |
an investment firm which has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
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4(ii) |
a qualifying credit institution that has Part 4A permission to carry on the regulated activity of accepting deposits;6 |
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4(iii) |
is a person who falls within regulation 30(1A) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 and has permission under Part 4A of the Act to carry on a regulated activity which is any of the investment services or activities;6 |
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4(iv) |
is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) 6of the markets in financial instruments regulation; |
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4(v) |
is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or |
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4(vi) |
is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act; |
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4(b) |
ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided; |
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4(c) |
ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of any provisions of the law of the United Kingdom relied on by the United Kingdom before IP completion day to implement6 the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service, as those provisions have effect on IP completion day, in the case of rules made by the FCA under the Act, and as amended from time to time, in all other cases6; |
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4(d) |
set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access; |
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4(e) |
be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from - |
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4(i) |
other orders; or |
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4(ii) |
trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and |
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4(f) |
have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems] |
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4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
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4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must - |
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4(a) |
be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory; |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory] |
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4(b) |
not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures] |
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4(c) |
impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted. |
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4(2) |
Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from - |
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4(a) |
adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained; |
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4(b) |
calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply; |
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4(c) |
imposing a higher fee - |
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4(i) |
for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed; |
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4(ii) |
on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or |
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4(iii) |
on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique, |
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4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity. |
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4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the - |
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4(a) |
the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and |
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4(b) |
the persons initiating those orders. |
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4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes |
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4(1) |
Subject to paragraph 1A, the8 [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in - |
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4(a) |
shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5] |
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4(b) |
any financial instrument for which technical standards are adopted by FCA under paragraphs 24 and 25 of Part 2 of Schedule 3 to6 the markets in financial instruments regulation8 which is traded on that trading venue. |
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[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
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8(1A) |
The application of tick sizes shall not prevent the [UK RIE] from matching orders that are large in scale (as determined in accordance with Article 4 of the markets in financial instruments regulation) at the mid-point within the current bid and offer prices. |
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[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
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4 (2) |
The tick size regime must - |
||
4(a) |
be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and |
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4(b) |
adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately. |
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4(3) |
The tick size regime must comply with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/588 of 14 July 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts and exchange-traded funds6. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 11] |
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4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks |
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4(1) |
The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/574 of 7 June 2016 supplementing Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for the level of accuracy of business clocks6. |
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4[Note:MiFID RTS 25] |
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In assessing whether the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body in the performance of its relevant functions are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business, the FCA3 may have regard to the UK recognised body's:3(1) arrangements for managing, controlling and carrying out its relevant functions, including: (a) the distribution of duties and responsibilities among the members of the management body4 and the departments of the UK recognised
REC 2.5.5G to REC 2.5.20G4 set out other matters to which the FCA3 may have regard in assessing the UK RIE’s4 systems and controls used for the transmission of information, risk management, 4the operation of settlement arrangements (the matters covered in paragraph 4(2)(d) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations),4 the safeguarding and administration of assets and certain other aspects of its operations4. 33
4Where the MiFID/MiFIR Systems Regulations apply to a UK RIE, the FCA will, in assessing the UK RIE’s systems and controls, additionally have regard to the UK RIE’s satisfaction of any relevant requirements in those regulations. Of particular importance is MiFID RTS 7, which will apply where a trading venue allows or enables algorithmic trading.
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the transmission of information, the FCA3 may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls ensure that information is transmitted promptly and accurately: 3(1) within the UK recognised body itself; (2) to members; and (3) (where appropriate) to other market participants or other relevant persons.
In assessing a UK RIE's systems and controls for 4the operation of settlement arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes through which the UK RIE's transactions are4 cleared4 and settled, including:3333(1) (in relation to non-derivatives transactions)4 a UK RIE’s arrangements with another person4 under which any rights or liabilities arising from transactions are discharged including arrangements3 for transmission to a settlement
4Where the requirements of MiFID RTS 7 in respect of effecting and monitoring transactions do not apply to a UK RIE, the FCA may, in addition, assess the UK RIE’s systems and controls for the effecting and monitoring of transactions. In doing so, it will have regard to the UK RIE’s arrangements under which orders are received and matched, and its arrangements for trade and transaction reporting.
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which the UK recognised body: 3(1) records the assets held and the identity of the owners of (and other persons with relevant rights over) those assets; (2) records any instructions given in relation to those assets;(3) records the carrying out of those instructions;(4)
The FCA3 recognises that a UK RIE3 has legitimate interests of its own and that its general business policy may properly be influenced by other persons (such as its owners). Such a connection does not necessarily imply the existence of a conflict of interest nor is it necessary to exclude individuals closely connected with other persons (for example, those responsible for the stewardship of the owner's interests) from all decision-making processes in a UK recognised body. However,
The FCA3 may have regard to the arrangements a UK recognised body makes to structure itself and to allocate responsibility for decisions so that it can continue to take proper regulatory decisions notwithstanding any conflicts of interest, including:3(1) the size and composition of the management body4 and relevant committees; (2) the roles and responsibilities of members of the management body4, especially where they also have responsibilities in other organisations; (3) the
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the management body4, members of relevant committees and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:34(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances in which a
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
Where MiFID RTS 7 applies to the UK RIE4, the FCA may, in assessing the adequacy of the UK recognised body’s information technology systems,4 have regard to:33(1) the organisation, management and resources of the information technology department within the UK recognised body;(2) the arrangements for 4documenting the design, development, implementation and use of information technology systems; and(3) the arrangements for maintaining, recording and enforcing technical and operational
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.4 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 and77(2) delivered to the FCA4 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR6.777
7Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G |
2. |
Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
3. |
Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
4. |
Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA |
5. |
Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification |
6. |
Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk. |
7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:
- (1)
The Financial Conduct Authority
12 Endeavour Square5
London, E20 1JN5
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or
- (2)
The Financial Conduct Authority
Quayside House 127
Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FCA4 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FCA4 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).7777
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FCA4 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FCA.4 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.7777
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the end of that period; and 77(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 77
The FCA4 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FCA.4 [For further details see the FCA's4 website.]777777
Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post or hand deliver33 to the published address of the FCA48 for submission of reports. If hand delivering mark the report for the attention of ‘Central Reporting’ and obtain a dated receipt.33 48 |
2. |
[deleted]33 224848 |
3. |
Electronic mail to the published e-mail address 33of the FCA's48 Central Reporting team.22 2248 |
4.22 |
Online submission via the appropriate systems accessible from the22FCA28 website 4848822 |
8
- (1)
The 33published address of the FCA48 for postal submission of reports is:
48Central Reporting22
The Financial Conduct48 Authority
48PO BOX 35747
London E14 5WP
- (2)
The 33published address of the FCA48 for hand delivery of reports is:
48- (a)
Central Reporting22
The Financial Conduct Authority38
484812 Endeavour Square35
London, E20 1JN35
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA28 is based in London, or:
4848 - (b)
Central Reporting33
The Financial Conduct Authority38
4848Quayside House
127 Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA48 is based in Edinburgh.2
48
- (a)
- (3)
The current published email address 33for the FCA’s Central Reporting team is regulatory.reports@fca.org.uk. Please note that the 33Central Reporting team does not handle general correspondence between firms and the FCA, and will not respond to queries3338. Accordingly, firms should not make submissions to the Central Reporting team’s email address33 other than as directed in SUP 16.3.8R.
2233484848332833484833
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the due date, specified for that report.4848(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the FCA28 no later than the first business day after the due date. 4848(3) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the FCA28 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies Act 1986 which
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report38 by the due date. If a report is received by the FCA28 after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:484848(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by the due date in accordance
(1) A firm must notify the FCA28 if it changes its accounting reference date.4848(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the FCA38) apply to any notification
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the FCA28 of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the FCA.38 This is because many due dates for reporting to the FCA28 are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the FCA28 have due dates for submission which are linked to the firm's
When the FCA28 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 23 of the Act38 (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential (see41SUP 2.2.4G).41484848483848
SUP 2.3.12AG states that the FCA38 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The FCA’s disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4G38 (Confidentiality of information). Also, some value measures data in SUP 16.27 is used by the FCA to create published guidance. This public disclosure is to assist the FCA to discharge its public fun
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to
publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory
notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other
things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not
directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include
a person not directly involved in establishing
Table: Summary of statutory and related notices
Notice |
Description |
Act reference |
Further information |
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 proposes to take and about the right to make representations. 2 |
Section 387 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has decided to take. The FCA2 may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents. 22 |
Section 388 |
||
Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued. |
Section 389 |
||
Sets out the terms of the action that the FCA2 is taking. 2 |
Section 390 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part 4A permission.2 22 |
Section 395(13) |
2Section 395 of the Act also
requires the FCA to publish
a statement of its procedure for decisions which give3 rise to an obligation
for the PRA to include a statement
under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or
a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision
notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where
the FCA proposes to refuse
consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act,
or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5), 55I(8) or
2Where an application for Part
4A permission is made to the PRA as
the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act),
the PRA may only give permission
with the consent of the FCA (section
55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the
permission is for certain regulated activities only.
2Where an application to vary a Part
4A permission is made to the PRA as
the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act),
the PRA may only give permission
with the consent of the FCA (section
55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed
variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance
one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent
can be conditional on the PRA imposing
limitations, or the PRA specifying
the permission
2Where an application to perform a controlled
function is made to the PRA as
the appropriate regulator, the PRA can
only approve a person to perform a controlled
function with the consent of the FCA (section
59(4)(b) of the Act). Where the application is a relevant senior management application, the FCA’s consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing conditions, or the PRA giving approval only for a limited period.3
Decisions on whether to give a statutory notice will be taken by a 'decision
maker'. The FCA's2 assessment
of who is the appropriate decision maker is subject to the requirements of
section 395 of the Act and will
depend upon the nature of the decision, including its complexity, importance
and urgency. References to the 'decision maker' in DEPP are
to:2(1) the Regulatory
Decisions Committee (RDC);
or(2) FCA2 staff
under executive procedures;
or2(3) FCA2 staff
under the settlement
The decision maker will also take
decisions associated with a statutory notice (a
'statutory notice associated decision'). Statutory notice associated decisions include
decisions:(1) to set or extend the period for
making representations;(2) on whether the FCA2 is required to give a copy of
the statutory notice to any
third party and, if so, the period for the third party to make representations;
and2(3) on whether to refuse access to FCA2 material,
relevant to the relevant statutory
DEPP 2 to DEPP 5 set out:(1) which decisions require the giving
of statutory notices and who takes them (DEPP 2);(2) the nature and procedures of the RDC (DEPP 3);(3) the procedure for decision making
by FCA2 staff
under executive procedures (DEPP 4);2(4) the procedure for decision making
by FCA2 staff
under the settlement decision procedure (DEPP 5).2