Related provisions for MAR 7A.4.1
1 - 20 of 148 items.
1The application of this section is set out in the following table:Type of firmApplicable provisionsUK regulated marketMAR 10.4.2GUK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF and a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTFMAR 10.4.3R to MAR 10.4.6GUK MiFID investment firmMAR 10.4.7D to MAR 10.4.9D and MAR 10.4.11G2UK branch of a2third country investment firm when not operating a multilateral trading facility
(1) 1This rule applies to a UK firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF and a UK branch of a third country investment firm operating a multilateral trading facility or an OTF.(2)
A firm must make public and provide to the FCA and ESMA a weekly report with the aggregate positions held by the different categories of persons for the different commodity derivatives or emission allowances traded on the trading venue, where those instruments meet the criteria of article
(1) 1This direction applies to a member, participant or a client of a trading venue.
(2) A person in (1) must report to the relevant operator of a trading venue the details of their own positions held through contracts traded on that venue, at least on a daily basis, as well as those of their clients and the clients of those clients, until the end client is reached.
(3) Paragraph (2) above does not apply to a member, participant or a client of a trading venue that is an EEA person.
[Note:
(1) 1This direction applies to:(a)
a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, provide the FCA with a report containing a complete breakdown of:(a)
their positions taken in those commodity derivatives
(1) 1This direction applies to:
(a) a UK MiFID investment firm; and
(b) a UK branch of a third country investment firm.
(2) An investment firm in (1) trading in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue must, where an EEA competent authority other than the FCA is the competent authority of the trading venue where that commodity derivative or emission allowance is traded, or the central competent authority for the purposes of that commodity derivative,
(1) 1This direction applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm which is a member, participant or a client of a UK trading venue.
(2) MAR 10.4.7D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm.(3) MAR 10.4.8D applies to an EEA MiFID investment firm under (1), as if it were a UK MiFID investment firm, where the EEA MiFID investment firm trades in a commodity derivative or emission allowance outside a trading venue, and the FCA is the competent
(1) 2This guidance applies to persons subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3).(2) A firm subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3) may use a third party technology provider to submit to the FCA the report referred to in MAR 10.4.8 D(2) provided that it does so in a manner consistent with MiFID. It will retain responsibility for the completeness, accuracy and timely submission of the report and should populate field 5 of MiFID ITS 4 Annex II with its own reporting entity
7Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4C(1)The [UK RIE] must make available to the public, without any charges, data relating to the quality of execution of transactions on the trading venues operated by the [UK RIE] on at least an annual basis. (2)Reports must include details about price, costs, speed and likelihood of execution for individual financial instruments.
7Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9ZA [Note: This paragraph is relevant to regulated markets only. See REC 2.16A regarding MTFs or OTFs](1)A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a regulated market operated by it.(2)A [UK RIE] must not on a regulated market operated by it -(a)execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or(b)engage in matched principal trading.
[Note: article 3 of MiFIR covers pre-trade transparency requirements for trading venues in respect of shares, depositary receipts8, ETFs, certificates and other similar financial instruments, and article 8 of MiFIR imposes similar requirements in respect of bonds, structured finance products, emission allowances and derivatives]7
[Note: MiFID RTS 1 on transparency requirements for trading venues in respect of shares, depositary receipts8, exchange traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments and the obligation for investment firms to execute transactions in certain shares on a trading venue or a systematic internaliser]
[Note: article 6 of MiFIR now covers post-trade transparency requirements for trading venues in respect of shares, depositary receipts8, ETFs, certificates and other similar financial instruments and article 10 of MiFIR imposes similar requirements in respect of bonds, structured finance products, emission allowances and derivatives]7
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices: 5(1) enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;(2) demonstrate that the UK RIE is able to satisfy:7(a) either or both of the following:7(i)
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in a transferable security only to the extent that the transferable security fulfils the following criteria:(a) the potential loss which the UCITS scheme may incur with respect to holding the transferable security is limited to the amount paid for it;(b) its liquidity does not compromise the ability of the authorised fund manager to comply with its obligation to redeemunits at the request of any qualifying unitholder (see COLL 6.2.16 R (3) );(c)
(1) [deleted]77(2) [deleted]77(3) Transferable securities and approved money-market instruments7 held within a UCITS scheme must be:777(a) admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (1)(a) (Eligible markets: requirements); or(b) dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (1)(b); or(c) admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (2); or(d) for an approved money-market instrument not admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market,
(1) This section specifies criteria based on those in article 5013 of the UCITS Directive, as to the nature of the markets in which the property of a UCITS scheme may be invested.13(2) Where a market ceases to be eligible, investments on that market cease to be approved securities. The 10% restriction in COLL 5.2.8 R (4) applies, and exceeding this limit because a market ceases to be eligible will generally be regarded as a breach beyond the control of the authorised fund man
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
(1) 7(In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market) a UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument provided it fulfils the following requirements:(a) the issue or the issuer is regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings; and(b) the instrument is issued or guaranteed in accordance with COLL 5.2.10B R.[Note: article 50(1)(h)(i) to (iii)13 of the UCITS Directive]13(2) The issue or the issuer of a money-market instrument,
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the case of a federal state,
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
(1) 7The financial indices referred to in COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) are those which satisfy the following criteria:(a) the index is sufficiently diversified;(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and (c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.(2) A financial index is sufficiently diversified if:(a) it is composed in such a way that price movements or trading activities regarding one component do not unduly influence the performance
(1) The indices referred to in COLL 5.2.31 R are those which satisfy the following criteria:7(a) the composition is sufficiently diversified;7(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and7(c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.7(2) The composition of an index is sufficiently diversified if its components adhere to the spread and concentration requirements in this section.77(3) An index represents an adequate benchmark if its
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
An EEA
market operator has exempt person status
as respects any regulated activity which
is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007
to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility.
A firm must have in place systems and controls which:
(1) ensure it conducts an assessment and review of the suitability of clients using the service;
(2) prevent clients using the service from exceeding appropriate pre-set trading and credit thresholds;
(3)
prevent trading by clients which:(a) may create risks to the firm; (b) or
may create, or contribute to, a disorderly market; or
(c) could be contrary to the Market Abuse Regulation or the rules of the trading venue.
[Note:
(1) A firm must monitor the transactions made by clients using the service to identify:
(a) infringements of the rules of the trading venue; or
(b) disorderly trading conditions; or
(c) conduct which may involve market abuse and which is to be reported to the FCA.(2) A firm must have a binding written agreement with each client which:
(a) details the essential rights and obligations of both parties arising from the provision of the service; and
(b) states that the firm is responsible
A firm must immediately notify the following if it is providing DEA services:
(1) the FCA; and
(2) the competent authority of any trading venue in the EEA to which the firm provides DEA services.
[Note: article 17(5) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 6 specifying the organisational requirements of investment firms providing direct electronic access]
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
6Under sections 313CA(2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA imposes a requirement to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading, the FCA must require any trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension or removal was due to suspected market abuse; a take-over bid; or the non-disclosure of inside information about the issuer
6Under sections 313CB (2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA receives notice that a person operating a trading venue has suspended or removed a financial instrument from trading on the trading venue because the instrument no longer complies with the venue’s rules, the FCA must require any other trading venue or systematic internaliser, falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, which trades the same instrument to suspend or remove the instrument if the suspension
6Under sections 313CC (2) and (3) of the Act, if the FCA receives notice that a competent authority of another EEA State has suspended or removed a financial instrument from trading on a trading venue or systematic internaliser pursuant to articles 32.2, 52.2 or 69.2 of MiFID, the FCA must require any trading venue or systematic internaliser falling under its jurisdiction as defined in section 313D of the Act, and which trades the same instrument, to suspend or remove the instrument
(1) The limitations in MCOB 4.4A.1 R include any limitations on the regulated mortgage contracts the firm will consider from within the relevant market. A firm which is offering services to a customer in respect of more than one type of relevant market must describe its services in relation to each such relevant market.(2) For these purposes, there are two relevant markets for regulated mortgage contracts (apart from lifetime mortgages): one for regulated mortgage contracts that
(1) A firm that only offers products from one part of a relevant market (for example, just bridging loans) should not disclose its service as unlimited.(2) When considering whether there are any limitations in its product range across the relevant market, a firm need not take account of the existence of exclusive deals which a mortgage lender offers to be sold by one or a limited number of mortgage intermediaries only (and not generally by mortgage intermediaries across the relevant
(1) If a firm is not offering to the customer products from an unlimited range from across the relevant market, in2 its disclosure on product range in MCOB 4.4A.1 R, the firm must:22(a) where it is an MCD mortgage credit intermediary,2 list the names of all the mortgage lenders whose products it is offering; or(b) where it is not an MCD mortgage credit intermediary, either22(i) comply with (a); or2(ii) inform the customer of the number of mortgage lenders whose products it is
A firm may be able to describe its product range as unlimited even if it offers its customers only a selection of the regulated mortgage contracts available from the relevant market, or uses ‘panels’. The firm would need to ensure that any panel, or selection of products, is sufficiently broad in its composition that it is representative of products from across the market, that it is reviewed regularly, and that its use does not materially disadvantage any customer. In such a
(1) Firms are reminded that, in the light of the rules and guidance in SYSC, they should have adequate systems and controls in place to ensure that the disclosure they make to a customer about their service reflects the service the customer is actually offered.(2) Firms are also reminded that Principle 7 (Communications with clients) and MCOB 3A.2.1R (Fair, clear2 and not misleading communications) are also relevant to how they describe their services, including in any business
In respect of transferable securities which are admitted to trading on a regulated market, this section applies to: (1) an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom in accordance with the first indent of1 article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD; and(2) an issuer who chooses the United Kingdom as its Home State in accordance with:1(a) the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD; or1(b) article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD; or1(c) article 2.1(i)(iii) of the TD.1
1Where an issuer has not disclosed its Home State as defined by the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD or article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD in accordance with DTR 6.4.2R and DTR 6.4.3R within a period of three months from the date the issuer’s securities are first admitted to trading on a regulated market, the Home State shall be:(1) the EEA State where the issuer’s securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or (2) where the issuer’s securities are admitted
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(a)2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that -access to the [UK RIE's] facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors and is in accordance with paragraph 7B;
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B2(1)The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.(2)In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -(a)the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];(b)rules relating to transactions on its trading venues4;(c)its professional standards for staff
4Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9ZC[Note: this sub-paragraph is relevant to regulated markets only. See REC 2.16A regarding MTFs or OTFs.](1)The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit membership to (as the case may be) only -(a)an investment firm authorised under article 5 of [MiFID];(b)a credit institution authorised in accordance with the capital
In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FCA3 may have regard to whether: 3(1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme2 or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(1) ensure that the unitholders of any such scheme it manages are treated fairly;(2) refrain from placing the interests of any group of unitholders above the interests of any other group of unitholders;(3) apply appropriate policies and procedures for preventing malpractices that might reasonably be expected to affect the stability and integrity of the market;(4) (a) ensure
(1) Examples of malpractices for the purposes of COLL 6.6A.2R (3) would include market timing and late trading, which may have detrimental effects on unitholders and may undermine the functioning of the market.(2) Examples of undue costs for the purposes of COLL 6.6A.2R (5) would include unreasonable charges and excessive trading, taking into account the scheme's investment objectives and policy.[Note: recital (18) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(1) ensure a high level of diligence in the selection and ongoing monitoring of scheme property, in the best interests of the scheme and the integrity of the market;(2) ensure it has adequate knowledge and understanding of the assets in which any scheme it manages is invested;(3) establish written policies and procedures on due diligence and implement effective arrangements
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or the UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must comply with all regulatory requirements applicable to the conduct of its business activities so as to promote the best interests of its investors and the integrity of the market.[Note: article 14(1)(e) of the UCITS Directive]
1A firm must have in place effective systems and controls, suitable to the business it operates, to ensure that its trading systems:(1) are resilient and have sufficient capacity;(2)
are subject to appropriate trading thresholds and limits;
(3) prevent the sending of erroneous orders, or the systems otherwise functioning in a way that may create or contribute to a disorderly market; and
(4) cannot be used for any purpose that is contrary to:
(a) the Market Abuse Regulation;
Where a firm engages in algorithmic trading to pursue a market making strategy, it must:
(1) carry out market making continuously during a specified proportion of the trading venue’s trading hours so that it provides liquidity on a regular and predictable basis to that trading venue, except in exceptional circumstances;
(2) enter into a binding written agreement with the trading venue which must specify the requirements for the purpose of (1); and
(3) have in place effective systems
A firm which is a member or participant of a trading venue must immediately notify the following if it is engaging in algorithmic trading:(1)
the FCA; and
(2) any competent authority of a trading venue in another EEA State where the firm engages in algorithmic trading.
[Note: article 17(2) of MiFID]
A firm must:(1) arrange for records to be kept to enable it to meet MAR 7A.3.7R; and(2)
(where it engages in a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique2) store, in the approved form, accurate and time-sequenced records of all its placed orders, including:
(a) cancelled orders;
(b) executed orders; and
(c) quotations on trading venues. [Note: article 17(2) of MiFID and MiFID RTS 6 specifying the format and content of the approved form referred to in MAR 7A.3.8R(2), and
1A firm4 must have:(1) transparent4 rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading;[Note: articles 18(1) and 19(1)4of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders which are established and implemented in non-discretionary rules4; [Note: articles 18(1) and 19(1)4 of MiFID](2A) arrangements for the sound management of the technical operations of the facility, including the establishment of effective contingency arrangements to cope with the risks of systems
4A firm must:(1) ensure the MTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) have arrangements to ensure it is adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation and put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks;[Note: article
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: article 18(8)4 of MiFID]
The FCA3 will usually expect :3(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an
If a UK recognised body makes arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by persons who are authorised persons or recognised bodies, this does not alter its obligations under Regulation 6.[Note: MiFID RTS 7 contains further requirements for a trading venue whose systems enable algorithmic trading when outsourcing all or part of its functions]5
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
1A firm must have:(1) transparent rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading; [Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders2;[Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](3) arrangements for the sound management of the technical operations of the facility, including the establishment of effective contingency arrangements to cope with the risks of systems disruption;[Note: article 18(1) of MiFID](4) transparent rules regarding the criteria for
A firm must:(1) ensure the OTF has at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation;[Note: article 18(7) of MiFID](2) provide the following to the FCA: (a) a detailed description of the functioning of the OTF, including any links to or participation by a regulated market, an MTF or OTF or systematic internaliser owned by the same firm; and(b) a list of its members, participants and users;
Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an OTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the OTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that OTF.[Note: article 18(8) of MiFID]
MAR 5.3A.1R applies in particular to systems and controls concerning:(1) the resilience of the firm’s trading systems;(2) its capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;(3) the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;(4) the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the MTF’s services if there is any failure of its trading systems, including the testing of the MTF’s systems and controls;(5) the ability
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;(3) monitor
A firm must have the ability to:(1) temporarily halt or constrain trading on the MTF if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on the MTF or a related trading venue during a short period; and(2) in exceptional cases, cancel, vary or correct any transaction.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
For the purposes of MAR 5.3A.5R and to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading, a firm must calibrate the parameters for halting trading in a way which takes into account the following:(1) the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;(2) the nature of the trading venue market model; and(3) the types of users.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
A firm must adopt tick size regimes in:(1) shares, depositary receipts2, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on the MTF; and(2) any other financial instrument which is traded on that trading venue, as required by a regulatory technical standard made under article 49.3 or 49.4 of MiFID.[Note: article 49 of MiFID and MiFID RTS 11]
1Under
section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may
prohibit an EEA market operator from
making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to,
or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6 operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator
has contravened a relevant requirement;6 and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3)
The operator's right to make
arrangements in the United Kingdom,
to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated
market,6multilateral trading
facility or organised trading facility6, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together
with its exempt person status)
if the FCA5 is
satisfied that the contravention which led the FCA5 to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.55
The rules and guidance in this section1 are intended to promote confidence in the market at Lloyd's, and to protect certain consumers of services provided by the Society in carrying on, or in connection with or for the purposes of, its regulated activities. They do this by ensuring that the Society appropriately and effectively regulates the capacity transfer market so that it operates in a fair and transparent manner.1
MAR 5A.5.1R applies in particular to systems and controls concerning: (1) the resilience of the firm’s trading systems;(2) its capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;(3) the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;(4) the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the OTF’s services if there is any failure of its trading systems, including the testing of the OTF’s systems and controls;(5) the ability
A firm must:(1) have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (market making agreements);(2) have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into market making agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; (3) monitor
A firm must have the ability to:(1) temporarily halt or constrain trading on the OTF if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on the OTF or a related trading venue during a short period; and(2) in exceptional cases, cancel, vary, or correct, any transaction.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
For the purposes of MAR 5A.5.5R, and to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading, a firm must calibrate the parameters for halting trading in a way which takes into account the following: (1) the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;(2) the nature of the trading venue market model; and(3) the types of users.[Note: article 48(5) of MiFID]
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to:3(a) DTR 7.1, or to requirements implementing article 39 of the Audit Directive in any other EEA State; and3(b) articles 11(1), 11(2) and 16(5) of the Audit Regulation;3[Note: article 39(3)(a)3 of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement
(1) The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as RIEs under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) and (as RAPs) under the RAP regulations. 5(2) The recognition requirements and guidance in REC 2 relate primarily to UK RIEs which are recognised, or applying to be recognised, to operate a regulated market in the United Kingdom.5(3) While some recognition requirements in REC 2 apply
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies5are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.32(1A) Key relevant MiFID/MiFIR requirements directly applicable to UK recognised bodies are signposted as “Notes”.5(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3)
