Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1

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SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.1010
SUP 6.3.4GRP
In determining the activities and specified investments for which a Part IV permission is required, and whether to apply for a variation of that permission, a firm may need to take professional advice and may also wish to discuss this with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.
SUP 6.3.6GRP
If a firm is seeking a variation of Part IV permission to add categories of regulated activities, it should be mindful of the directive requirements referred to at SUP 6.3.42 G relating to the need to commence new activities within 12 months.
SUP 6.3.7GRP
If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that activity. If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity in relation to any specified investment, it will usually apply to vary its Part IV permission to remove that specified investment from the relevant activity.
SUP 6.3.8GRP
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part IV permission which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:(a) make an application to the FSA for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application to the FSA for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application); seeSUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5
SUP 6.3.9GRP
A variation of Part IV permission may, in some cases, lead to a change in a firm's prudential category or sub-category (see SUP App 1). For example, an investment management firm which varies its Part IV permission to include accepting deposits and as a result meets the definition of a bank, would move to the prudential category for a bank (see SUP App 1.3.1 G).
SUP 6.3.11GRP
A firm with Part IV permission to carry on insurance business, which is applying for a variation of its Part IV permission to add further insurance activities or specified investments, will be required to submit particular information on its existing activities as part of its application. This includes the scheme of operations which is required to be submitted as part of the application pack (for further details on the scheme of operations, see SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme of
SUP 6.3.12GRP
In applying to vary its Part IV permission to add categories of specified investments, in relation to insurance business, a firm carrying on insurance business will need to determine the classes of specified investments relating to effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission will be necessary, having regard to whether certain classes of contract may qualify to be effected or carried out on an ancillary or supplementary basis (see
SUP 6.3.13GRP
The application for variation of Part IV permission will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part IV permission is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FSA that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold
SUP 6.3.16GRP
(1) Section 51(2) of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part IV permission must contain a statement:(a) of the desired variation; and(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.(2) The full form and content of the application for variation of Part IV permission is a matter for direction by the FSA, who will determine the additional information and documentation
SUP 6.3.17GRP
(1) [deleted]7(2) A firm is advised to discuss its application with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA before submission, particularly if it is seeking a variation of permission within a short timescale. A firm is also advised to include as much detail as possible (including any additional information identified by its supervisors at this stage) with its application.7
SUP 6.3.19GRP
A firm which is making an application for variation of Part IV permission to wind down (run off) its business before applying for a cancellation of that permission (see SUP 6.2.9 G) should read SUP 6 Annex 4 for details of the additional procedures that apply.
SUP 6.3.20GRP
In certain cases, FSA may consider that granting an application for variation of Part IV permission which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a requirement or limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the FSA may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml10), as
SUP 6.3.22GRP
The fees payable for a firm applying for a variation of its part IV permission are set out in FEES 3.8
SUP 6.3.28GRP
(1) The FSA is required by section 41(2) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to vary its Part IV permission satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part IV permission after the variation. However, the FSA's duty under the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to secure its
SUP 6.3.31GRP
In considering whether to grant a firm's application to vary its Part IV permission, the FSA will also have regard, under section 49(1) of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person6 appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant. The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the FSA is exercising its functions under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activities) for
SUP 6.3.34GRP
If limitations or requirements are varied or imposed by the FSA which were not included in the firm's application for variation of Part IV permission, the FSA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.39GRP
A decision to grant an application for variation of Part IV permission, as applied for, will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. However, if the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for variation of Part IV permission be either refused or granted subject to limitations or requirements or a narrower description of regulated activities than applied for, the decision will be taken by either the RDC or executive procedures.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FSA's decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part IV permission either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FSA but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).9
SUP 6.3.41GRP
If the variation of Part IV permission is given, the FSA will expect a firm to commence a new regulated activity in accordance with its business plan (revised as necessary to take account of changes during the application process) or scheme of operations for an insurer. Firms should take this into consideration when determining when to make an application to the FSA.
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not (see EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms))9:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period
SUP 6.3.43GRP
When a firm commences new regulated activities following a variation of a Part IV permission, it should have particular regard to the requirements of Principle 11 (Relations with regulators) (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(c)).
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3):3(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:

1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or

2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.

SUP 6.2.6GRP
A firm which is seeking to: (1) vary its Part IV permission substantially; or(2) cancel its Part IV permission;should discuss its plans with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA as early as possible before making an application, in order to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G (Notifications to the FSA)). These discussions will help the FSA and the firm to agree the correct approach for the firm.
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the FSA to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the FSA before applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.9GRP
If an insurer,4 a bank, or a dormant account fund operator4 wishes to cease carrying on all regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, it will usually be necessary to wind down the business over a long term period which is normally more than six months. This may also be the case for a firm holding client money or customer assets. In these circumstances, it will usually be appropriate for the firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission before commencing
SUP 6.2.10GRP
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss its circumstances. The FSA will discuss the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel its Part IV permission. Following these discussions, an application for variation or cancellation of Part IV permission, as appropriate, should usually be made by the firm, although, in certain circumstances, the FSA may use its own-initiative
SUP 6.2.11GRP
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part IV permission before it applies for cancellation of Part IV permission to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months of more. It will apply to most insurers and banks and, in some
SUP 6.2.12GRP
A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part IV permission on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA. A variation of Part IV permission may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.
SUP 6.2.13GRP
A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part IV permission, wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.
SUP 6.4.3GRP
(1) A firm may apply to the FSA to cancel its Part IV permission before it has ceased carrying on all regulated activities. However, where a firm makes a formal application for cancellation of its permission when it has not yet ceased carrying on regulated activities, the FSA will expect the firm:(a) to cease those regulated activities within the short term (normally no more than six months from the date of application for cancellation); and(b) to have formal plans to cease its
SUP 6.4.4GRP
Additional guidance for a firm carrying on insurance business, accepting deposits, operating a dormant account fund8 or which holds client money or customer's assets is given in SUP 6 Annex 4. As noted in SUP 6.2.9 G, it will usually be appropriate for a firm to apply for variation of its Part IV permission while winding down (running off) its regulated activities and before applying to cancel its Part IV permission.
SUP 6.4.5DRP
(1) If a firm wishes to cancel its Part IV permission, it must complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 (Cancellation of permission application form).2(2) A firm's application for cancellation of Part IV permission must be:(a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of, the Cancellations 4Team at the FSA; and4(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5 R (Form and method of notification).(3) [deleted]2(4) Until the application has
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part IV permission in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.4 Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.4(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: Cancellations4 Team:4(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial ServicesAuthority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or(b) email cancellation.team@fsa.gov.uk(3)
SUP 6.4.7GRP
When an 4application is received4, the FSA4 will send the firm a written acknowledgement. The firm will be required to provide information which, in the opinion of the FSA, is necessary for it to determine whether to grant or refuse the application for cancellation of Part IV permission. The Cancellations4Team will work with the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA during this process.4444
SUP 6.4.8GRP
The information which the FSA may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the FSA may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part IV permission to carry on.
SUP 6.4.12GRP
The FSA will usually require the report in SUP 6.4.9 G to be signed by a director or other officer with authority to bind the firm. It may include confirmations from the firm that, in relation to business carried on under its Part IV permission, it has:(1) ceased carrying on all regulated activities;(2) properly disbursed funds in its client bank accounts and closed those accounts;(3) discharged all insurance or deposit liabilities; and(4) properly transferred all investments,
SUP 6.4.18GRP
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
SUP 6.4.19GRP
The FSA will usually not cancel a firm's Part IV permission until the firm can demonstrate that, in relation to business carried on under that permission, it has, as appropriate:(1) ceased carrying on regulated activities or fully run off or transferred all insurance liabilities;(2) repaid all client money and client deposits;(3) discharged custody assets and any other property belonging to clients; and(4) discharged, satisfied or resolved complaints against the firm.
SUP 6.4.21GRP
Before the FSA cancels a firm'sPart IV permission, the firm will be expected to be able to demonstrate that it has ceased or transferred all regulated activities under that permission. For example, the firm may be asked to provide evidence that a transfer of business (including, where relevant, any client money, customer assets or deposits or insurance liabilities) is complete. As noted in SUP 6.4.9 G, the FSA may require the firm to confirm this by providing a report, in a form
SUP 6.4.22GRP
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart IV permission, the FSA will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 4.3.99 R,5CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.2.15 R5 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty) and CASS 4.3.104 R and CASS 7.2.19 R5(Client money: allocated but
SUP 6.4.23GRP
If the FSA has granted an application for cancellation of Part IV permission and withdrawn a firm's status as an authorised person (see SUP 6.5) it will retain certain investigative and enforcement powers in relation to the firm as a former authorised person. These include:(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (seeEG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers)6);6(2) powers to apply to
SUP 6.4.28GRP
A decision to grant an application for cancellation of permission will be taken by appropriately experienced FSA staff. Where, however, the FSA staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for cancellation of Part IV permission be refused, the decision will be taken by the RDC if the applicant makes representations to the FSA. If there are no representations, the decision will be made under executive procedures.33
PERG 2.8.2GRP
Only one exclusion applies to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. Adeposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. In addition to the situations that are excluded from being 'deposits' (see PERG 2.6.2 G to PERG 2.6.4 G), several persons are exempt persons in relation to the regulated activity of accepting deposits (see PERG 2.10.8G (2)).
PERG 2.8.3GRP
The following activities are excluded from both the regulated activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance.(1) In specified circumstances, the activities of an EEA firm when participating in a Community co-insurance operation are excluded. A Community co-insurance operation is defined in the Community Co-insurance Directive.(2) In specified circumstances, activities that are carried out in connection with the provision of on-the-spot accident or breakdown assistance
PERG 2.8.4GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any contractually based investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such contracts). The activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) Of particular significance is the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc). This applies where dealing in investments as principal
PERG 2.8.5GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as agent applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any relevant investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such rights). In addition, the activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) An exclusion applies to certain transactions entered into by an agent who is not an authorised person which depend on him dealing with (or through) an authorised person. It does
PERG 2.8.6AGRP
3The exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order that relate to the various arranging activities are as follows.(1) Under article 26, arrangements that do not or would not bring about the transaction to which they relate are excluded from the arranging activities that relate to a particular transaction (see PERG 2.8.6G (1)) only. A person will bring about a transaction or a contract or plan variation only if his involvement in the chain of events leading to a transaction or contract
PERG 2.8.7GRP
The activities of persons appointed under a power of attorney are excluded under article 38 of the Regulated Activities Order, from the regulated activity of managing investments, if specified conditions are satisfied. The exclusion only applies where a person is not carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation and is subject to further limitations discussed below2. In addition, the following exclusions (outlined in PERG 2.9) apply in specified circumstances where
PERG 2.8.7BGRP
The following exclusions from assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance also apply to a person in specified circumstances:(1) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G); or(2) in connection with the carrying on of a profession or of a business not otherwise consisting of regulated activities (see PERG 2.9.5 G); or(3) as an incoming ECA provider (see PERG 2.9.18 G); or(4) as a provider of non-motor goods or services related
PERG 2.8.8GRP
The exclusions from the regulated activity of safeguarding and administering investments are as follows.(1) Safeguarding and administration activities carried on by one person are excluded if a specified third party undertakes a responsibility for the assets which is no less onerous than it would have been if he were doing the safeguarding and administration himself. The effect of this is that an authorised person with permission to carry on this regulated activity (or in certain
PERG 2.8.9GRP
Exclusions from the regulated activity of sending dematerialised instructions apply in relation to certain types of instructions sent in the operation of the system maintained under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3755). The various exclusions relate to the roles played by participating issuers, settlement banks and network providers (such as Internet service providers) and to instructions sent in connection with takeover offers (as long as specified conditions
PERG 2.8.10GRP
There are two1 exclusions1 from the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to collective investment schemes. These exclusions relate 1to incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G) and to business angel-led enterprise capital funds (see PERG 2.9.20 G)1. In other cases, the key issue is whether or not what is being done relates to something that is a collective investment scheme. Exclusions exist in relation to that issue (see PERG 2.6.18 G).11
PERG 2.8.11GRP
The only exclusion from the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to stakeholder pension schemesand personal pension schemes2 relates to incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G).
PERG 2.8.12AGRP
3Advice given by an unauthorised person in relation to a home finance transaction in the circumstances referred to in PERG 2.8.6AG (5)(a) or (b) (Arranging deals in investments and arranging a home finance transaction) is also excluded. In addition:(1) the following exclusions apply in specified circumstances where a person is advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction:(a) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G);(b) in connection
PERG 2.8.13GRP
Electronic commerce activities provided by an incoming ECA provider are excluded from the regulated activities that relate expressly to business carried on at Lloyds (see PERG 2.9.18 G). Otherwise the only exclusions that apply concern the regulated activity of arranging deals in its application to business carried on at Lloyd's.
PERG 2.8.14GRP
Entering as provider into afuneral plan contract is not treated as a regulated activity where:(1) the contract is one under which the sums received from the customer will be applied towards a contract of insurance on the life of the person whose funeral is to be provided or be held on trust for the purpose of providing a funeral; in each case certain specified conditions must be met for the exclusion to apply; or(2) the customer and the provider intend or expect that the funeral
PERG 2.8.14BGRP
3The following exclusions apply in specified circumstances where a person is administering a home finance plan:(1) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G);(2) in connection with the carrying on of a profession or of a business not otherwise consisting of regulated activities (see PERG 2.9.5 G); and(3) as an incoming ECA provider (see PERG 2.9.18 G).(4)
SUP 6.5.1GRP
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation by the FSA), if the FSA cancels a firm's Part IV permission, and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the FSA is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.
FEES 3.2.2GRP
If an application for a Part IV permission (or exercise of a Treaty right) falls within more than one category set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, only one fee is payable. That fee is the one for the category to which the highest fee tariff applies.
FEES 3.2.3RRP
(1) Unless (2) or (3)10 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.(2) FSA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges.(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission (FEES 3.2.7 R(p)) must be paid by any of the methods described
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the FSA will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation order is made to
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

1111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

777

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any firm in any one or more of the A fee-blocks defined in FEES 4 Annex 1 Part 1, except fee-block A.16.

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.9

SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission.1
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
SUP 7.2.6GRP
A firm has a right of referral to the Financial Services and Markets Tribunal in respect of the exercise by the FSA of its powers to vary, on its own initiative, the firm'sPart IV permission.2
SUP 6.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to every firm with a Part IV permission which wishes to:(1) vary its Part IV permission; or(2) cancel its Part IV permission and end its authorisation.
SUP 6.1.4GRP
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with Part IV permission can apply to the FSA to vary that permission;(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission, or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the FSA to cancel that permission completely; (3) the additional procedures that apply to a firm carrying on regulated activities which create long term obligations to
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the FSA's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part IV permission has been cancelled at the firm's request. It does not, however, cover the FSA's use of its own-initiative powers to vary or cancel a firm's Part IV permission (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).22
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part IVpermission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).

3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive.

PERG 5.12.11GRP
UK-based persons must obtain Part IV permission in relation to their insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom as one of the following:(1) a body corporate whose registered office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(2) a partnership or unincorporated association whose head office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(3) an individual (that is, a sole trader) whose residence is situated in the United Kingdom.The United Kingdom will, in each case, be the Home State
PERG 5.12.12GRP
Non-UK-based persons wishing to carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom must:(1) qualify for authorisation by exercising passport rights (see section 31 (Authorised persons) and schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) to the Act and PERG 5.12.13 G to PERG 5.12.14 G (Passporting)); or(2) make use of the overseas persons exclusion (which then has the effect that activities are deemed not to be regulated activities carried on in the United Kingdom); or(3) seek Part
PERG 5.12.14GRP
On the other hand, non-EEA-based insurance intermediaries wishing to establish a branch in the UK for the purpose of carrying on insurance mediation activities may only do so with Part IV permission.
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
SUP 13A.7.2GRP
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
FEES 3.1.6GRP
Applications for Part IV permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) are categorised by the FSA for the purpose of fee raising as complex, moderately complex and straightforward as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the FSA's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).
FEES 3.1.7GRP
A potential applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the FSA before submitting it formally.2 (For more information, contact the Firm Contact Centre (020 7066 3954) or visit the FSA website How do I get authorised: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.)2 If an applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) does so, the FSA will be able to use that dialogue to make
MIPRU 4.1.1RRP
2This chapter applies to a firm with Part IV permission to carry on any of the following activities, unless an exemption in this section applies:(1) insurance mediation activity;(2) home finance mediation activity;11(3) home financing1;14114(4) home finance administration1.14114
MIPRU 4.1.2GRP
As this chapter applies only to a firm with Part IV permission, it does not apply to an incoming EEA firm (unless it has a top-up permission). An incoming EEA firm includes a firm which is passporting into the United Kingdom under the Insurance Mediation Directive3. 3
MIPRU 4.1.6RRP
This chapter does not apply to a firm whose Part IV permission is limited to regulated activities which are designated investment business.
MIPRU 4.1.18GRP
Social housing firms undertake small amounts of home finance1business even though their main business consists of activities other than regulated activities. Their home financing1is only done as an adjunct to their primary purpose (usually the provision of housing) and is substantially different in character to that done by commercial lenders. Furthermore, they are subsidiaries of local authorities or registered social landlords which are already subject to separate regulation.
SUP 14.5.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm has been granted top-up permission by the FSA and wishes to vary that permission, the Act requires it to apply to the FSA for a variation of the top-up permission. 1
SUP 14.5.2GRP
Guidance on the procedures for applying for a variation of a permission granted under Part IV of the Act, including a top-up permission, is given in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IVPermission).1
SUP 7.1.2GRP
The application of this chapter to an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier with a Part IV permission (a "top-up permission") is limited as explained in SUP 7.2.4 G.
DEPP 1.2.2GRP

Table: Summary of statutory and related notices

Notice

Description

Act reference

Further information

Warning notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA proposes to take and about the right to make representations.

Section 387

DEPP 2.2

Decision notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has decided to take. The FSA may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents.

Section 388

DEPP 2.3

Notice of discontinuance

Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued.

Section 389

DEPP 1.2.4 G and DEPP 3.2.26 G

Final notice

Sets out the terms of the action that the FSA is taking.

Section 390

DEPP 1.2.4 G

Supervisory notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part IV permission.

Section 395(13)

DEPP 2.2 and DEPP 2.3

SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 5,1019 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Note 1)

19

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the non-directive custody chapter, non-directive client money chapter, MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply,17 , unless the firm is regulated by The Law Society (England and Wales), The Law Society of Scotland or The Law Society of Northern Ireland (Note 2)

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Note 2A)

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A)

21

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5B)

ELMI

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm). 15or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 3A)17

917

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

9(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15), or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) not within (7) to which the non-directive custody chapter, non-directive client money chapter, MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply17

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

9(7B)

UCITS firm13

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

13(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Note 3B)20

20

SUP 3.1 - 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

17(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Note 3C)20

20

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 = In row (2):

(a) The non-directive custody chapter17 is treated as applying only if (i) the firm safeguards and administers investments17in connection with managing investments (other than when acting as trustee) or (ii) it safeguards and administers17 investments in relation to bonded investments (and, in either case, it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive custody chapter under the MiFID custody chapter).17

(b) The non-directive client money chapter17 is treated as applying only if the firm receives or holds client money other than under an arrangement where commission is rebated to the client (and assuming that it has not opted to conduct all business that would fall within the non-directive client money chapter under the MiFID client money chapter)17;

but, if the custody rules or the client money rules above are17 treated as applying, then SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets) applies to the whole of the business within the scope of the custody rules or the client money rules above17.

17171717171717

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities:).

18

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

17Note 3A = If the firm has elected to comply with the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter also in respect of its non-MiFID business then SUP 3.10 will apply to the whole of the business within the scope of the MiFID custody chapter or the MiFID client money chapter.

20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the MiFID custody chapter or MiFID client money chapter apply20 must have its annual accounts audited.

2020

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

SUP 3.1.3RRP
This chapter applies17to an incoming EEA firm (and the auditor of such a firm) only if it has a17top-up permission.171717
SUP 3.1.4GRP
The application of SUP 3.10 to the auditor of an incoming EEA firm with a top-up permission is qualified in SUP 3.10.3 R.
SUP 3.1.5RRP
This chapter does not apply to an incoming Treaty firm, which:(1) does not have a top-up permission; and(2) is not required to comply with the client asset rules.
PERG 5.13.1GRP
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
PERG 5.13.2GRP
A person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).
PERG 5.13.6GRP
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that an authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised payment institution has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FSA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of this section.
DEPP 2.5.3GRP
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section