Related provisions for MCOB 11.6.21

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MCOB 6.7.2GRP
MCOB 6.7.1 R (2) means, for example, that the required text in MCOB 6.4.4 R (7) should be replaced by text that satisfies the requirements for business illustrations or high net worth illustrations2 in MCOB 5.7.5 R
FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year4 of the compensation scheme:4(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
SUP 9.2.5GRP
The FCA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FCA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FCA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FCA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
MCOB 2.8.5GRP
Except for MCOB 11.6.21A R, each2rule in MCOB that requires a record also sets out a period that the record must be kept for. While not a requirement of MCOB, firms may choose to keep records for longer periods, for example, where there is the possibility of customer complaint or legal action against the firm.
DISP App 1.5.5GRP
23Firms will not be responsible for any increased costs resulting from the complainant choosing another product provider or for increased premiums charged by another provider chosen by the complainant in respect of the risk now presented, for example, higher premiums charged by the other provider due to deterioration in health, unless the original product provider no longer writes new business and is unable to offer revised life cover on a decreasing term assurance basis.
PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4

4company

any body corporate.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7EUCRR.7

77

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

ESMA Prospectus Opinions10

8

the following opinions published by ESMA:10

(1)

Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10

(2)

Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10

(3)

Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10

(4)

Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10

8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers

the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/576)10.

ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8

8

the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8

8

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2.

22

FCA

the Financial Conduct Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4

4key information

(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:

(a)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;

(b)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;

(c)

the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;

(d)

details of the admission to trading; and

(e)

the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.

5limited liability partnership

(a)

a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;

(b)

a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.

MiFID3

The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC).

See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

5officer

(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

5partnership

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

Prospectus RTS Regulations9

8

9(1)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and

9(2)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4

(a)

a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4

4

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3

regulated market

a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FCA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

3

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

LR 5.4.3GRP
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FCA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FCA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FCA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
FEES 5.8.3GRP

1The table below sets out the period within which a firm's tariff base is calculated (the data period) for second year levies calculated under FEES 5.8.2R. The example is based on a firm that acquires permission on 1 November 20146and has a financial year ending 31 March. Where valuation dates fall before the firm receives permission it should use projected valuations in calculating its levies.

References in this table to dates or months are references to the latest one occurring before the start of the FCA's financial year unless otherwise stated.

6

Type of permission acquired on 1 November

Tariff base

Valuation date but for FEES 5.8.2R

Data period under FEES 5.8.2R

Insurers - general

Relevant annual gross premium income and gross technical liabilities6

31 March 20146- so projected valuations will be used

6

1 November to 31 December 20146.

6

Portfolio managers (including those holding client money/ assets and not holding client money/ assets)

6

Relevant funds under management

Valued at 31 December

Valued at 31 December

Advisers,6arrangers, dealers or brokers holding and controlling client money and/or assets

6

Annual income as defined in FEES 4 Annex 11A6

6

31 December. 6

This is because the firm's tariff base is calculated by reference to the firm's financial year end in the calendar year before the start of the FCAfee year. Therefore FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c) applies. 6

6

1 November to 31 December but annualised in accordance with FEES 5.8.2R (3)(c)(iii)6

6
DEPP 6.6.2GRP
In addition to the factors considered in Step 2 for cases against firms (DEPP 6.5A) and cases against individuals (DEPP 6.5B),1 the following considerations are relevant.1(1) In general, the FCA's2 approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.2(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FCA2 as to why
EG 19.27.2RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and directly applicable EU regulations. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying EU
DISP 2.1.5GRP
In this chapter, ancillary banking services include, for example, the provision and operation of cash machines, foreign currency exchange, safe deposit boxes and account aggregation services (services where details of accounts held with different financial service providers can be accessed by a single password).417417
LR 1.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required by
CONC 2.5.9GRP
(1) It is likely to be an inappropriate offer of an inducement or incentive to enter into an regulated credit agreement or a regulated consumer hire agreement to state that the offer in relation to the agreement will be withdrawn or the terms and conditions of the offer will worsen if the agreement is not signed immediately or within a stated period after the communication, unless the firm's offer on those terms and conditions will in fact be withdrawn or worsen in the period
SUP 10C.7.3GRP

Table: Examples of how the other overall responsibility function applies

1Example

Comments

(1) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive director function and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm.

A only needs approval to perform the executive director function.

(2) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive director function for the same firm.

A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive director function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive director function.

(3) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm.

A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It does not make any difference whether the potential other overall responsibility function that A performs is connected to the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

(4) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function for the same firm.

A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function.

(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform:

(a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be

a relevant authorised person); and

(b) a function coming within the scope of the other overall responsibility function for another firm (which is a

relevant authorised person) in the same group (Firm Y).

A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other overall responsibility function for Firm Y.

(6) ‘A’ is appointed to be head of sales and to report directly to the firm'sgoverning body about this. This function also comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

(7) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other overall responsibility function.

On being appointed as chief risk officer,

the answer for example (4) applies because being chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A will stop performing the other overall responsibility function.

(8) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the other overall responsibility function. Later, the firm reorganises and A’s role comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A’s role does not otherwise change.

The answer for example (7) applies.

(9) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It is also a potential other overall responsibility function. Later, the firm reorganises—A’s role stays the same but now it falls outside the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.

On A’s first appointment, A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. Following the reorganisation, the firm has three months to get approval for A to perform the other overall responsibility function. This three-month period applies because the relevant PRA rules keep the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function in place, which means that the other overall responsibility function does not apply during that period.

The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook titled ‘Senior Management Functions’.

(10) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A also performs a potential other overall responsibility function. A gives up the PRA role but carries on with the potential other overall responsibility function.

The answer to example (9) applies.

(11) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other overall responsibility function.

On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive director function. A will need to get approval to perform the other overall responsibility function before A gives up being a director.

Note (1): A potential other overall responsibility function means a function that would have come within the other overall responsibility function but is excluded by SUP 10C.7.1R(2).

Note (2): A potential other overall responsibility function should be recorded in A’s statement of responsibilities and in the firm'smanagement responsibilities map.

CONC 5A.4.18GRP
Examples of the types of ancillary service to an agreement for high-cost short-term credit referred to in CONC 5A.4.17 R include, but are not limited to, services related to processing the application and to the transmission of the money being lent, and insurance or insurance-like services ancillary to the agreement.
EG 19.23.11RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example the cancellation of an authorisation or the imposition of a financial penalty) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
REC 3.15.5GRP
Specified investments (other than securities or options in relation to securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being assets of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UK official list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation
LR 5.6.7GRP
Examples of where the FCA will consider that a reverse takeover is in contemplation include situations where:(1) the issuer has approached the target's board;(2) the issuer has entered into an exclusivity period with a target; or(3) the issuer has been given access to begin due diligence work (whether or not on a limited basis).
LR 8.7.21AGRP
8Examples of when a sponsor should submit a cancellation request pursuant to LR 8.7.22 R include, but are not limited to:(1) situations where the sponsor ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R and, following a notification made under LR 8.7.8 R, there are no ongoing discussions with the FCA which could lead to the conclusion that the sponsor remains eligible; or(2) where there is a change of control of the sponsor or any
MCOB 12.4.2GRP
For each type of payment shortfall charge (for example, a monthly arrears management charge), a 4firm may calculate the same level of additional administration costs and payment shortfall charges4 for all regulated mortgage contracts where the customer is in payment shortfall4, rather than performing a calculation 4on the basis of the individual regulated mortgage contract with the particular customer. 444