Related provisions for COND 1.1A.7

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APER 4.7.3ERP
Failing to take reasonable steps to implement (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) adequate and appropriate systems of control to comply with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system in respect of the regulated activities of the firm in question (as referred to in Statement of Principle 7)12 falls within APER 4.7.2 E. In the case of an approved person who is responsible, under SYSC 2.1.3 R (2) or SYSC 4.4.5 R (2)2,
APER 4.7.4ERP
Failing to take reasonable steps to monitor (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) compliance with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system in respect of the regulated activities of the firm in question (as referred to in Statement of Principle 7)12 falls within APER 4.7.2 E (see APER 4.7.12 G).12
APER 4.7.5ERP
Failing to take reasonable steps adequately to inform himself about the reason why significant breaches (whether suspected or actual) of the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system in respect of the regulated activities of the firm in question (as referred to in Statement of Principle 7)12 may have arisen (taking account of the systems and procedures in place) falls within APER 4.7.2 E. 12
APER 4.7.7ERP
Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that procedures and systems of control are reviewed and, if appropriate, improved, following the identification of significant breaches (whether suspected or actual) of the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system relating to the regulated activities of the firm in question (as referred to in Statement of Principle 7),12 falls within APER 4.7.2 E (see APER 4.7.13 G and APER 4.7.14 G).1212
SUP 13A.3.2GRP
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
SUP 13A.3.4GRP
Under section 31 of the Act, a Treaty firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights), that is:(1) the Treaty firm is seeking to carry on a regulated activity; and(2) the conditions set out in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act are satisfied.
SUP 13A.3.5GRP
On qualifying for authorisation a Treaty firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity which is a regulated activity. This permission will be treated on the same terms as those which apply to the Treaty firm'sHome State authorisation. For example, it will reflect any limitations or requirements which are included in the firm'sHome State authorisation.
SUP 13A.3.6GRP
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
SUP 13A.3.13GRP
A UCITS qualifier has permission under paragraph 2 of Schedule 5 to the Act, to carry on, as far as is appropriate to the capacity in which it acts in relation to the scheme:(1) the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme; and(2) any activity in connection with, or for the purposes of, the scheme.
SUP 12.7.1ARRP
(1) 8A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R onlineat http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities
SUP 12.7.2GRP
A firm's notice under SUP 12.7.1 R should give details of the appointed representative and the regulated activities which the firm is, or intends to, carry on through the appointed representative, including:(1) the name of the firm's new appointed representative (if the appointed representative is a body corporate, this is its registered name);(2) any trading name under which the firm's new appointed representative carries on a regulated activity in that capacity;(3) a description
SUP 12.7.3GRP
A firm need not notify the FCA of any restrictions imposed on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility (under SUP 12.7.2 G (4)) if the firm accepts responsibility for the unrestricted scope of the regulated activities.
SUP 12.7.8ARRP
(1) 8A firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such
FEES 3.2.3RRP
(1) Unless (2) or (3)10 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.(2) 15The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to:(a) become a recognised body or a designated professional body; or15(b) be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies.15(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission (FEES 3.2.7 R(p) and, if applicable,
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA74

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

74

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE74 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7474

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the appropriate regulator74 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the appropriate regulator74 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the appropriate regulator745for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the appropriate regulator's74 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the appropriate regulator74 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1125745745747474

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555745745

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator74, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator74 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2

2747474

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 74 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,74 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17474111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1375 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713757227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA73 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.73

73The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7373

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]74

74		 74 91674

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

74(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

74(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

PERG 4.9.1GRP
Under article 64 of the Regulated Activities Order (Agreeing to carry on specific kinds of activity), in addition to the regulated activities of arranging (bringing about), making arrangements with a view to, advising on, entering into and administering regulated mortgage contracts, agreeing to do any of these things is itself a regulated activity. In the FCA's opinion, this activity concerns the entering into of a legally binding agreement to provide the services that it concerns.
PERG 4.9.2GRP
To the extent that an exclusion applies in relation to a regulated activity, then 'agreeing' to carry on an activity within the exclusion will not be a regulated activity. This is the effect of article 4(3) of the Regulated Activities Order.
PERG 5.5.1GRP
Article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in investments as agent) makes dealing in contracts of insurance as agent a regulated activity. The activity is defined in terms of buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting contracts as agent, that is, on behalf of another. Examples include:(1) where an intermediary, by accepting on the insurance undertaking's behalf to provide the insurance, commits an insurance undertaking to provide insurance for a prospective policyholder;
PERG 5.5.2GRP
Intermediaries with delegated authority to bind insurance undertakings are likely to be dealing in investments as agent. It should be noted, in particular, that this is a regulated activity:(1) whether or not any advice is given (see PERG 5.8 (The regulated activities: advising on contracts of insurance); and(2) whether or not the intermediary deals through an authorised person (for example, where he instructs another agent who is an authorised person to enter into a contract
PERG 1.1.1GRP
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying for Part 4A permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may be seeking
PERG 1.1.2GRP
The purpose of this manual is to give guidance about the circumstances in which authorisation is required, or exempt person status is available, including guidance on the activities which are regulated under the Act and the exclusions which are available.
REC 6A.1.2GRP
In making these arrangements, the operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity, which is carried on as a part of its business of operating the market or facility in question, or in connection with, or for the purposes of that business.
REC 6A.1.3GRP
An EEA market operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity which is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated market or multilateral trading facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007 to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated market or multilateral trading facility.
FEES 5.9.3GRP
[deleted]3838
GEN 4.3.1RRP
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure that every letter (or electronic equivalent) which it or its employees send to a retail client4, with a view to or in connection with the firm carrying on a regulated activity, includes the disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R (firms that are not PRA-authorised persons) or GEN 4 Annex 1AR (PRA-authorised persons) as applicable14.14
GEN 4.3.5RRP
For an authorised professional firm, GEN 4.3.1 R (Disclosure in letters to retail clients4) does not apply with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities.4
DEPP 6A.1.2GRP
(1) For the purposes of DEPP 6A, "suspension" refers to the suspension of:2(a) any permission which an authorised person has to carry on a regulated activity (under section 206A of the Act),2(b) any approval of the performance by an approved person of any function to which the approval relates (under section 66 of the Act),2(c) a sponsor's approval (under section 88A(2)(b) of the Act),2(d) and a primary information provider's approval (under section 89Q(2)(b) of the Act); and2(2)
DEPP 6A.1.3GRP
The power to impose a suspension or a restriction is a disciplinary measure which the FCA2 may use in addition to, or instead of, imposing a financial penalty or issuing a public censure. The principal purpose of imposing a suspension or a restriction is to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from committing further breaches, helping to deter other persons from committing similar breaches, and demonstrating
DEPP 6A.1.4GRP
The powers to impose a suspension or a restriction in relation to authorised persons and approved persons are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised person, the FCA2 will seek to cancel or vary the authorised person'spermissions. If the FCA2 has concerns with a person's fitness to be approved, and considers it necessary to take action, the FCA2 will seek to prohibit the approved person
CASS 1.2.2RRP
CASS applies to every firm, except as provided for in CASS 1.2.3 R, with respect to the carrying on of:(1) all regulated activities except to the extent that a provision of CASS provides for a narrower application; and(2) unregulated activities to the extent specified in any provision of CASS.
CASS 1.2.4RRP
With the exception of this chapter and the insurance client money chapter, CASS does2 not apply to:2(1) an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities; or(2) the Society.
CASS 1.2.5RRP
1The insurance client money chapter2 does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities, which are insurance mediation activities, if:2(1) the firm's designated professional body has made rules which implement article 4 of the Insurance Mediation Directive;33(2) those rules have been approved by the FCA under section 332(5) of the Act; and(3) the firm is subject to the rules in the form in which they were approved.
DISP 1.1.2GRP
Details of how this chapter applies to each type of respondent are set out below. For this purpose, respondents include:(1) persons carrying on regulated activities (firms),1339 providing payment services (payment service providers)8 or providing electronic money issuance services (electronic money issuers) 1339 and which are8 covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction;8(2) persons covered by the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction (licensees); and(3) persons who have opted in to the Voluntary
DISP 1.1.5RRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) [deleted]738738(2) [deleted]1414(3) an authorised professional firm in respect of expressions of dissatisfaction about its non-mainstream regulated activities; 1516(4) complaints in respect of auction regulation bidding;1615(5) a full-scope UK AIFM, small authorised UK AIFM or an incoming EEA AIFM, for complaints concerning AIFM management functions carried on for a closed-ended corporate AIF; and16(6) a depositary, for complaints concerning
DISP 1.1.9AGRP
10The scope of this sourcebook does not include:(1) a complaint about pre-commencement investment business which was regulated by a recognised professional body (those complaints will be handled under the arrangements of that professional body); or(2) a complaint about the administration of an occupational pension scheme, because this is not a regulated activity (firms should refer complainants to the Pensions Advisory Service rather than to the Financial Ombudsman Service).
DISP 1.1.10DGRP
(1) 1339In this sourcebook, the term electronic money issuer does not include credit institutions, credit unions or municipal banks (which will be carrying on a regulated activity if they issue electronic money and will be covered by this sourcebook as firms in those circumstances), but it does include small electronic money institutions and persons who meet the conditions set out in regulation 75(1) or regulation 76(1) of the Electronic Money Regulations.(2) Although electronic
COND 1.2.2GRP
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
COND 1.2.3GRP
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
COND 1.2.5GRP
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
PERG 8.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to persons who need to know whether their communications are subject to or comply with the Act. It also helps them decide whether their activities in making or helping others to make financial promotions are regulated activities.
PERG 8.1.2GRP
The purpose of this guidance is two fold:(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of more
PERG 8.1.3GRP
In particular, this guidance covers:(1) invitations and inducements (see PERG 8.4);(2) meaning of 'in the course of business' (see PERG 8.5);(3) meaning of 'communicate' (see PERG 8.6);(4) meaning of 'engage in investment activity' (see PERG 8.7);(5) meaning of 'having an effect in the United Kingdom' (see PERG 8.8);(6) circumstances where the restriction in section 21 does not apply (see PERG 8.9);(7) types of financial promotion, including:(a) meaning of 'real time financial
PERG 4.12.2GRP
A person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).
PERG 4.12.3GRP
An appointed representative can carry on only those regulated activities which are specified in the Appointed Representatives Regulations. As respects regulated mortgage contracts, these are arranging (bringing about), making arrangements with a view to and advising on regulated mortgage contracts (as well as agreeing to do so).
PERG 4.12.4GRP
A person who is not already an appointed representative for designated investment business activities, and who may wish to become one in relation to the regulated activities of arranging (bringing about), making arrangements with a view to or advising on regulated mortgage contracts, can do so. He must be appointed under a written contract by an authorised person, who has permission to carry on those regulated activities, and who accepts responsibility for the appointed representative's
SYSC 4.4.1ARRP
[deleted]66
SYSC 4.4.5RRP

A firm must appropriately allocate to one or more individuals, in accordance with the following table, the functions of:

  1. (1)

    dealing with the apportionment of responsibilities under SYSC 4.4.3 R; and

  2. (2)

    overseeing the establishment and maintenance of systems and controls under SYSC 4.1.1 R.

    3. 1: Firm type

    2: Allocation of both functions must be to the following individual, if any (see Note):

    3: Allocation to one or more individuals selected from this column is compulsory if there is no allocation to an individual in column 2, but is otherwise optional and additional:

    (1) A firm which is a body corporate and is a member of a group, other than a firm in row (2)

    (1) the firm'schief executive (and all of them jointly, if more than one); or

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of:

    (a) the group; or

    (b) a group division within which some or all of the firm'sregulated activities fall

    (2) An incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm (note: only the functions in SYSC 4.4.5R (2) must be allocated)

    (not applicable)

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    (3) Any other firm

    the firm'schief executive (and all of them jointly, if more than one)

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    Note: Column 2 does not require the involvement of the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager in an aspect of corporate governance if that would be contrary to generally accepted principles of good corporate governance.
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R17) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this in SUP 10A.117 (Approved persons - Application).

1717

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.
PERG 8.5.1GRP
Under section 21(4) of the Act, the Treasury has the power to specify circumstances in which a person is viewed as ‘acting in the course of business’ or ‘not acting in the course of business’. The power under section 21(4) relates only to financial promotions and is distinct from the power in section 419 which relates to regulated activities. To date, the Treasury has not used the power in section 21(4). As a result, the phrase has its ordinary or natural meaning.
PERG 8.5.2GRP
The FCA considers that ‘in the course of business’ requires a commercial interest on the part of the communicator. This does not necessarily have to be a direct interest. And the communicator does not need to be carrying on regulated activities (the test in section 19 of the Act) as or as part of his business. Neither does the communication need to be made in the course of carrying on activities as a business in their own right (the test in article 3 of the Financial Services
PERG 8.5.5GRP
Persons who carry on a business which is not a regulated activity will need to be particularly careful in making communications which may amount to financial promotions (because they seek to persuade or incite persons to engage in investment activity (see PERG 8.4)). For example, where a company makes financial promotions to its employees, they may well be made in the course of business. Examples of these include financial promotions concerning employee share schemes, group wide
DEPP 2.5.3GRP
FCA6 staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FCA6 proposes to:66(1) refuse an application for a Part 4A permission6 or to refuse an application to cancel a Part 4A permission6;66(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part 4A permission6;6(3) refuse an application to vary a Part 4A permission6, or to restrict
DEPP 2.5.7GRP
The RDC will take the decision to give a supervisory notice exercising the FCA's 6own-initiative powers6 (by removing a regulated activity, by imposing a limitation or requirement or by specifying a narrower description of regulated activity) if the action involves a fundamental variation or requirement6 (see DEPP 2.5.8 G). Otherwise, the decision to give the supervisory notice6 will be taken by FCA6 staff under executive procedures.66666
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by