Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3

COLL 9.3.2R01/04/2013

An operator of a scheme recognised under section 272 of the Act must ensure the prospectus:(1) contains a statement that "Complaints about the operation of the scheme may be made to the FCA."; and(2) states whether or not investors in the scheme would be covered by the compensation scheme, and if so, it must state how they are covered and who they would need to contact for further information.

PR App 1.1.101/04/2013

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
6ESMA recommendations	the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission’s Regulation on Prospectuses No 809/2004 published by the European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA/2011/81).
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
3	[deleted]3 3
3	[deleted]3 3
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

RCB 1.1.2G01/04/2013

The general purpose of this sourcebook is to set out the guidance, directions and rules made by the FCA under the RCB Regulations. Those regulations enable bonds to be issued which comply with Article 52(4)2of the UCITS Directive. 2

PERG 5.12.13G01/04/2013

The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United

REC 2.8.3G01/04/2013

In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions, the FCA3 may have regard to the UK recognised body's:3(1) rules and practices relating to clearing and settlement including its arrangements with another person for the provision of clearing and settlement services;3(2) arrangements for matching trades and ensuring that the parties are in agreement about trade details;(3) where

SUP 11.8.6G01/04/2013

The appropriate regulator9 may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the appropriate regulator9 on its own initiative).99

ICOBS 7.2.4G01/04/2013

In most cases, the FCA would expect the proportion of a policy's exposure that relates to the time on risk to be a pro rata apportionment. However, where there is material unevenness in the incidence of risk, an insurer could use a more accurate method. The sum should be reasonable and should not exceed an amount commensurate to the risk incurred.

MCOB 4.5.1G01/04/2013

(1) There are certain additional disclosure requirements laid down by the Distance Marketing Directive that will have to be provided by a mortgage intermediary,6 a home purchase intermediary and a SRB intermediary64 to a consumer5 prior to the conclusion of a distance mortgage mediation contract,66 a distance home purchase mediation contract4 or a distance regulated sale and rent back mediation contract.6 The purpose of this section, MCOB 4.5, is to set out those additional requirements.

BIPRU 9.11.2R01/04/2013

Table:

This table belongs to BIPRU 9.11.1 R

2

Credit Quality step

1

2

3

4 (only for credit assessments other than short-term credit assessments)2

All other credit quality steps2

2

Securitisation positions 2

2

20%

50%

100%

350%

1250%2

2 Resecuritisation positions

40%

100%

225%

650%

1250%

[Note: For mapping of the credit quality step to the credit assessments of eligible ECAIs, refer to: http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/fsa-ecais-securitisation for the FCA and http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Documents/publications/ss/2013/ss913.pdf for the PRA]

[Note: BCD, Annex IX, Part 4, point 6, Table 1]2

SUP 11.1.2R01/04/2013

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

	Category of firm	Applicable sections
(1)	A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a non-directive firm 4 3 4	All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3
(1A)	A building society	(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3andSUP 11.4.4 R3 9
(2)	A non-directive friendly society	SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9
(2A) 3	A non-directive firm 4 3 4	all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3
(3)	An overseas firm	All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73
Note	In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the appropriate regulator 9 under Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons9) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).2 1 9 4 4 9 9 4 4 9 4

SUP 12.9.5R01/11/2007

2If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.

SUP 13.5.2AG27/07/2012

4SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to UK pure reinsurers or a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the auction regulation7 as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under Reinsurance Directive or the auction regulation. However, the information required by SUP 13.5.2-A R assists the FSA's supervision of a UK firm's provision of a service in another EEA state under the auction regulation.7

TC App 5.1.1G01/04/2013

1Introduction
1.	TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.
2.	This Appendix sets out:
	(1)	the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and
	(2)	the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.
Criteria for assessing a qualification provider
3.	The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:
	(1)	assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;
	(2)	valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;
	(3)	robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;
	(4)	procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;
	(5)	robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;
	(6)	robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;
	(7)	appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;
	(8)	procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;
	(9)	robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and
	(10)	adequate resources in order to be financially viable.
Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA
4.	If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:
	(1)	where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;
	(2)	specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;
	(3)	set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;
	(4)	where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;
	(5)	provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;
	(6)	where applicable, explain how grading is applied;
	(7)	where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;
	(8)	provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;
	(9)	where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;
	(10)	provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and
	(11)	provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.
Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA
5.	When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:
	(1)	whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:
		(a)	meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and
		(b)	reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;
	(2)	any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;
	(3)	the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;
	(4)	the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;
	(5)	how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and
	(6)	whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;
	(7)	information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.

LR 18.4.4R01/04/2013

Prior to any change of the depositary of certificates representing certain securities, the new depositary must satisfy the FCA that it meets the requirements of LR 18.2.11 R to LR 18.2.14 R.

LR 15.2.1AR01/04/2013

2The FCA will not admit shares of a company incorporated in a non-EEA State that are not listed either in its country of incorporation or in the country in which a majority of its shares are held, unless the FCA is satisfied that the absence of the listing is not due to the need to protect investors. [Note: Article 51 CARD]

SYSC 1.4.2R01/04/2013

A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344

LR 20.4.3R01/04/2013

(1) An issuer's listed miscellaneous securities must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listed miscellaneous securities to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listed miscellaneous securities; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listed miscellaneous securities

COLL 6.2.12G01/04/2013

Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).

Correction of box management errors
1	Controls by authorised fund managers
	An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over:
	(1)	its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and
	(2)	compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box.
2	Controls by depositaries
	(1)	Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme 2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation).
	(2)	A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures.
3	Recording and reporting of box management errors
	(1)	An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error.
	(2)	A depositary should report material box management errors to the FCA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including: the implications of the error for the sufficiency of controls put into place by the authorised fund manager; the significance of any breakdown in the authorised fund manager's management controls or other checking procedures; the significance of any failure of systems or back-up arrangements; the duration of an error; and the level of compensation due to the scheme, and an authorised fund manager's ability (or otherwise) to meet claims for compensation in full.
	(3)	A depositary should also make a return to the FCA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis.

Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3

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Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)