Related provisions for BIPRU 4.1.2

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BIPRU 4.1.3GRP
BIPRU 4 also implements Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive so far as it applies to the IRB approach. In particular, it implements (in part):(1) from Part 1 of that Annex, points 12-16, 19-22, 26(g)(ii) and 27;(2) from Part 2 of that Annex, points 8-11; and(3) from Part 3 of that Annex, points 1, 11, 20, 23-24, 58(h), 61, 64-79 and 90-93.
BIPRU 8.1.3GRP
This chapter implements articles 71, 73(1) and (2), 125, 126, 127(1), 133 and 134 of the Banking Consolidation Directive and articles 2 (in part), 22-27 and 37(1) (in part) of the Capital Adequacy Directive.
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In connection with rules (or future rules) implementing the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (including any amendments):

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for a waiver or concession (or guidance on the availability of either): or

(ii) a firm'sEEA parent applying to its Home State regulator for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 .

112

If the firm is applying to the FSA:2

(1) unless2 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6;2

(2) (a) unless2 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for a waiver or concession or1guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a waiver or a concession based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable by a firm applying to its Home State regulator where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAand the firm falls within Group 4 of Part 1 of FEES 3 Annex 6.2

212

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date the application is made.

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.

BIPRU 5.1.2GRP
BIPRU 5 implements, in part, Articles 78(1) and 91 to 93 and Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
BIPRU 11.1.2GRP
The purpose of BIPRU 11 is to implement:(1) (a) Article 68(3);(b) Article 72;(c) Articles 145 to 149; and(d) Annex XII;of the Banking Consolidation Directive; and(2) (a) Article 2, in part;(b) Point 3 of Article 23, in part; and(c) Article 39;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.
BIPRU 13.1.4GRP
BIPRU 13 implements:(1) Article 78(2) and (4);(2) point 3 of Part 1, and Parts 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 of Annex III; and(3) Annex IV;of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
BIPRU 9.1.2GRP
The purpose of BIPRU 9 is to implement:(1) Articles 94 to 96, paragraphs (1) and (5) of Article 97 , Article 99, Article 100(1) and Article 101;(2) Points 8 and 9 of Annex V; and(3) Parts 2, 3 (in part) and 4 of Annex IX;of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
BIPRU 1.1.4GRP
BIPRU 1.1 implements in part Articles 3(1)(b), 5, 9, 10 and 20 of the Capital Adequacy Directive. However it amends those definitions so as to base the classification of investment firms on the ISD rather than the MiFID. will be amended so as to base that classification on the MiFID when the MiFID is applied to firms by the FSA.
BIPRU 1.2.2GRP
This section implements certain provisions of the Capital Adequacy Directive and the Banking Consolidation Directive relating to the trading book. The precise provisions being implemented are listed as a note after each rule.
BIPRU 2.1.2GRP
The purpose of this section is to implement Articles 70 and 118 of the Banking Consolidation Directive. It also implements Articles 2 and 28 of the Capital Adequacy Directiveso far as they apply those provisions of the Banking Consolidation Directive to CAD investment firms.
PERG 2.4.3GRP
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
BIPRU 8.4.9RRP
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or credit institution in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group .(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm must use the definition of own funds given in the CRD implementation measure of its EEA State for Article 16 of the Capital Adequacy Directive.(4)
BIPRU 7.2.49RRP
A debt security is a qualifying debt security if:(1) it qualifies for a credit quality step under the standardised approach to credit risk corresponding at least to investment grade; or(2) it has a PD which, because of the solvency of the issuer, is not higher than that of the debt securities referred to under (1) under the IRB approach; or(3) it is a debt security for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is unavailable and which meets the following conditions:(a) it