Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5

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COND 2.5.1AUKRP
(1) 15A must be a fit and proper person having regard to all the circumstances, including-(a) A’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that A’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers and the integrity of the UK financial system;(d) whether A has complied and is complying with requirements imposed
COND 2.5.1BGRP
15Paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1DGRP
15Paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1EGRP
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.5.1FGRP
15Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing suitability under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4E and 5E of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the suitability threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
COND 2.5.3GRP
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (in relation to an FCA-approved person, 16see SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons in Appointed Representatives19), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers regime for approved persons in SMCR
COND 2.5.4GRP
(1) [deleted]1515(2) Examples of the kind of general considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act include, but are not limited to, whether the firm:1515(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate
COND 2.5.6GRP
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
COND 2.4.1AUKRP
(1) 8The resources of A must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A has appropriate resources include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by A;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, A; and(c) A’s membership of a group and any effect which that membership may have.(3) Except in a case
COND 2.4.1BGRP
8Paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate resources threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1CUKRP
(1) The non-financial resources of B must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether the condition in sub-paragraph (1) is met include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by B;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, B;(c) B’s a member
COND 2.4.1DGRP
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1EGRP
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.4.1FGRP
8As the threshold condition set out in paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act does not relate to financial resources, the guidance in COND 2.4 relating to appropriate financial resources only applies to the FCA's assessment of the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.4.1GGRP
8Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is responsible for assessing their financial resources. Paragraphs 4D and 5D of Schedule 6 to the Act contain the threshold conditions relating to financial resources which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity (in addition to additional non-financial resources threshold
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
SUP 10A.13.1GRP
In accordance with section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), where a candidate will be performing one or more FCA controlled functions, a firm must take reasonable care to ensure that the candidate does not perform these functions unless he has prior approval from the FCA.
SUP 10A.13.2GRP
If a person performs an FCA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties), if the FCA is satisfied that:(1) a person (“P”) has at any time performed an FCA controlled function without approval; and(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing an FCA controlled function without approval;it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers
SUP 10A.13.3DRP
An application by a firm for the FCA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) must be made by completing Form A (except where SUP 10A.14.4 D requires a Form E).
SUP 10A.13.5GRP
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:(a) the FCAcandidate; or(b) the appointed representative5.(2) [deleted]53
SUP 10A.13.8GRP
The Act sets out the time that the FCA has to consider an application and come to a decision.
SUP 10A.13.9GRP
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
SUP 10A.13.12GRP
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
SUP 10A.13.20GRP
Under section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications), the firm may withdraw an application only if it also has the consent of the candidate and the person by whom the candidate is or would have been employed, if this is not the firm making the application.
REC 6.7.1RRP
The notification rules in this chapter, which are made under sections 293 (Notification requirements) and 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), apply to all ROIEs1.1
REC 6.7.2GRP
The notification rules in this chapter are made by the FCA1 in order to ensure that it is provided with notice of events and information which it reasonably requires for the exercise of its functions under the Act. 1
REC 6.7.3RRP
Where an ROIE1 includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FCA's1 assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it must include particulars
REC 6.7.4RRP
An ROIE1 must include in its report submitted in compliance with section 295(1) of the Act:1(1) particulars of any changes to: (a) its memorandum and articles of association or any similar or analogous documents; (b) its regulatory provisions; (c) its chairman or president, or chief executive (or equivalent);(2) particulars of any disciplinary action (or any similar or analogous action) taken against it by any supervisory authority in its home territory, whether or not that action
REC 6.7.5RRP
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
REC 6.7.6GRP
Guidance on the period covered by an ROIE's1 report submitted in compliance with section 295(1) of the Act is given in REC 6.6.3 G11.1
REC 6.7.7RRP
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
SUP 10C.11.1GRP
(1) Section 60(2A) of the Act (Applications for approval) says that, if a firm is applying for approval from the FCA or the PRA for a person to perform a designated senior management function, the regulator to which the application is being made must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the firm which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function. (2) That statement
SUP 10C.11.3DRP
An application by a firm for the FCA's approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) for the performance of an FCA-designated senior management function must be accompanied by a statement of responsibilities (SUP 10C Annex 10D5).
SUP 10C.11.5GRP
Under section 62A of the Act, a firm must provide the FCA with a revised statement of responsibilities if there has been any significant change in the responsibilities of an FCA-approved SMF manager. More precisely:(1) if a firm has made an application (which was granted) to the FCA for approval for a person to perform an FCA-designated senior management function; (2) the application contained, or was accompanied by, a statement of responsibilities; and(3) since the granting of
SUP 10C.11.7DRP
(1) A firm must provide a revised statement of responsibilities under section 62A of the Act (SUP 10C Annex 10D)5 under cover of Form J (SUP 10C Annex 9D5).(2) A firm must not use Form J where the revisions are to be made as part of arrangements involving an application:(a) for approval for the FCA-approved SMF manager concerned to perform another designated senior management function for the same firm; or(b) to vary (under section 63ZA of the Act (Variation of senior manager’s
SUP 10C.11.10DRP
An application by a firm to the FCA for the variation of an existing approval under section 63ZA of the Act (Variation of a senior manager’s approval at request of 5authorised person) must be accompanied by a statement of responsibilities.
SUP 10C.11.14GRP
(1) SUP 10C.11.13D means that, at any time, a firm should have a single document for an FCA-approved SMF manager5 that:(a) contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which that SMF manager has approval; and(b) where relevant, contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which the firm is applying for approval.(2) (In the case of a PRA-authorised person), the6 document in (1) should cover
SUP 10C.11.21GRP
(1) A complete set of current statement of responsibilities means all statements of responsibilities that the firm has provided to the FCA or (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6PRA as revised under section 62A of the Act and this chapter5.(2) A statement of responsibilities is not current if the person in question no longer performs any of the controlled functions5 to which it relates.
SUP 10C.11.24GRP
(1) A statement of responsibilities (including its attachment sheet for additional information) should:(a) be complete by itself;(b) not refer to documents not forming part of it; and(c) only contain material about the matters that this chapter, the corresponding PRA requirements (in the case of a PRA-authorised person),6 and the Act say should be included in it.(2) For example, if it is necessary to include relevant material from the firm's report and accounts, the statement
SUP 10C.11.30GRP
(1) The FCA may request a firm to include specific responsibility for a regulatory outcome in the statement of responsibilities of the relevant SMF managers. (2) For example, where the FCA asks a firm to take remediation action following an internal or supervisory review or a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) and considers it appropriate for an SMF manager to take responsibility for that action, it may ask the firm to add an additional, customised,
EG 18.1.1RP
1The FCA may cancel a sponsor's approval under section 88 of the Act if it considers that a sponsor has failed to meet the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5R.
EG 18.1.2RP
1When considering whether to cancel a sponsor's approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the sponsor; (2) the adequacy of the sponsor's systems and controls; (3) the sponsor's history of compliance with the listing rules; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected failure of the sponsor to meet (at
EG 18.1.3RP
1The FCA may also cancel a primary information provider’s approval under section 89P of the Act if it considers that a primary information provider has failed to meet the criteria for approval as a primary information provider as set out in DTR 8.3.
EG 18.1.4RP
1When considering whether to cancel a primary information provider’s approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the primary information provider; (2) the adequacy of the primary information provider’s systems and controls; (3) the primary information provider’s history of compliance with DTR 8; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected
EG 20.3.2RP
1The CCA Order does not require the FCA to publish procedures about its approach towards the commencement of criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act as set out in EG 12.
EG 20.3.3RP
1The CCA Order does not require the FCA to publish procedures about its approach towards applications to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
EG 20.3.4RP
1The CCA Order requires the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to material, as set out in section 394 of the Act, in relation to warning notices and decision notices given under the CCA Order.
EG 20.3.5RP
1The CCA Order applies the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, as modified by the CCA Order, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal. Referrals to the Tribunal in respect of decision notices given under sections 67 (pursuant to article 3(3) of the CCA Order) and 208 (pursuant to article 3(7) of the CCA Order) of the Act are treated as disciplinary referrals for the purpose of section 133 of the Act.
SUP 10A.3.2GRP
Sections 59(1) and (2) of the Act provide that approval is necessary in respect of an FCA controlled function which is performed under an arrangement entered into by a firm, or its contractor (typically an appointed representative), in relation to a regulated activity.
SUP 10A.3.3GRP
Arrangement is defined in section 59(10) of the Act as any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function which is entered into by a firm or any of its contractors with another person and includes the appointment of a person to an office, their1 becoming a partner, or their1 employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise). 1
SUP 10A.3.4GRP
[deleted]1
SUP 10A.3.5GRP
The arrangement must be “in relation to” the carrying on of a regulated activity. Regulated activities are defined in the Glossary by reference to the Regulated Activities Order. This order prescribes the activities which are regulated activities for the purposes of the Act.
EG 19.33.2RP
As the provision of credit data on companies is not a regulated activity under the Act, the Regulations create a separate monitoring and enforcement regime but apply, or make provision corresponding to, certain aspects of the Act. The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Regulations will reflect its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive
EG 19.33.3RP
Regulation 23 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of designated banks and designated finance platforms. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating any breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations.
EG 19.33.4RP
For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation and the reasons for the appointment. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the Regulations is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as it would in the course of an investigation under the Act.
EG 19.33.6RP
Regulation 43 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations applies to the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal, and regulation 41 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations applies to Part 26 of the Act to warning and decision notices given under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations.
EG 19.33.8RP
As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
FEES 5.2.1GRP
Paragraph 9 of Schedule 17 to the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme) requires FOS Ltd to adopt an annual budget which has been approved by the FCA. The annual budget must distinguish between the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction and the Voluntary Jurisdiction. 3
FEES 5.2.2GRP
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
FEES 5.2.3GRP
Paragraph 15 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require firms subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction and any other respondents to a complaint to pay specified fees to it in respect of complaints closed by the Financial Ombudsman Service.
FEES 5.2.5GRP
Paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require VJ participants to pay to it such amounts at such times as it specifies in the standard terms.
FEES 5.2.6GRP
The relevant provisions of the rules in FEES 5 and FEES 2 will be applied to VJ participants through the standard terms made by FOS Ltd under paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act (see DISP 4).
PERG 9.4.1GRP
The first element of the definition is that open-ended investment companies are a corporate form of collective investment scheme. This means that they must have the features in section 235 of the Act.
PERG 9.4.2GRP
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
PERG 9.4.4GRP
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
PERG 9.4.5GRP
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
PERG 9.4.6GRP
In the FCA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
COLL 11.6.1GRP
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)
COLL 11.6.3RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
COLL 11.6.5RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
COLL 11.6.10RRP
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
COLL 11.6.11GRP
COLL 11.6.10 R gives effect to sections 283A(4), 252A(8) and 261S(8)1 of the Act and regulation 22A(4) of the OEIC Regulations which require the FCA to impose certain conditions when approving the re-investment of cash received from a master UCITS which has been wound up.1
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
SUP 12.3.1GRP
In determining whether a firm has complied with:5(1) any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule; or5(2) any provision in Part 3 of the MCD Order; or5(3) any qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purpose of section 39(4) of the Act by the Treasury by order,5anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having
SUP 12.3.2GRP
The firm is responsible, to the same extent as if it had expressly permitted it, for anything the appointed representative does or omits to do, in carrying on the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act and article 17 of the MCD Order).44
SUP 12.3.3GRP
In determining whether the firm has committed any offence,3 however, the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative are not attributable to the firm, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to it (section 39(6) of the Act).3
SUP 12.3.6GRP
1The effect of section 39A(6)(b) of the Act is to prohibit a UK MiFID investment firm from appointing an FCA registered tied agent unless it has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as a tied agent.
LR 4.2.1GRP
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing particulars) requires listing particulars submitted to the FCA to contain all such information as investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
LR 4.2.2RRP
(1) The listing particulars must contain a summary that complies with the requirements in section 87A(5) and (6) of the Act and PR 2.1.4 EU to PR 2.1.7 R (as if those requirements applied to the listing particulars).(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a) in relation to specialist securities referred to in LR 4.1.1R (2); or(b) if, in accordance with article 7(1) of the Prospectus Regulation5, no summary would be required in relation to the securities.
LR 4.2.9GRP
Under section 82 of the Act (exemptions from disclosure) the FCA may authorise the omission from listing particulars of information on specified grounds.
LR 4.2.10RRP
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
LR 4.2.11RRP
For the purposes of section 82(1)(c)3 of the Act, specialist securities are specified.
SUP 5.6.1GRP
Within the legal constraints that apply, the FCA1 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information received1
SUP 5.6.2GRP
The limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplemental provisions) under which a person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) to disclose information or produce a document subject to banking confidentiality (with exceptions); and (2) section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required to produce, disclose or allow the inspection
SUP 5.6.3GRP
2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm
SUP 5.6.4GRP
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) 2and (for RAPs) under regulation 4 of the RAP regulations, the FCA3 has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body. 3
REC 4.7.2AGRP
2Where the FCA3 makes a revocation order under section 297 of the Act in relation to a UK RIE which is also an RAP, the FCA3 will also revoke the recognition order relating to its status as an RAP.33
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
SUP 10C.3.2GRP
There are two types of FCA controlled function under the Act:(1) an FCA-designated senior management function; and(2) an FCA controlled function that is not a designated senior management function.
SUP 10C.3.6RRP
In accordance with section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), a function specified in this chapter is an FCA controlled function only to the extent that it is performed under an arrangement entered into by:(1) a firm; or(2) a contractor of the firm;in relation to the carrying on by the firm of a regulated activity.
SUP 10C.3.7GRP
Section 59(1) and (2) of the Act provide that approval is necessary for an FCA controlled function which is performed under an arrangement entered into by a firm, or its contractor (typically an appointed representative), in relation to a regulated activity.
SUP 10C.3.8GRP
(1) Arrangement is defined in section 59(10) of the Act as any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function which is entered into by a firm or any of its contractors with another person.(2) Arrangement includes the appointment of a person to an office, a person becoming a partner, or a person's employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise).(3) An arrangement need not be a written contract but could arise by conduct, custom and practice.
SUP 10C.3.11GRP
Section 59ZA(2) of the Act says that a function is a ‘senior management function’, in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by a firm, if: (1) the function will require the person performing it to be responsible for managing one or more aspects of the firm's affairs, so far as relating to the activity; and(2) those aspects involve, or might involve, a risk of serious consequences:(a) for the firm; or(b) for business or other interests in the United Kingdom.
SUP 10C.3.12GRP
Section 59ZA(3) of the Act says that ‘managing’ includes, for these purposes, taking decisions, or participating in the taking of decisions, about how one or more aspects of the firm's affairs should be carried on.
EG 19.27.2RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and directly applicable EU regulations. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying EU
EG 19.27.3RP
2The FCA has decided that its approach to enforcing the AIFMD UK regulation requirements will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act in EG 2. Therefore, the FCA will apply the same procedures and policies under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information for breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation.
EG 19.27.7RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation does not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision- making procedures for similar decisions under the Act.
EG 19.27.8RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation applies the procedural provisions of Part and Part 26 of the Act for matters that can be referred to the Tribunal and to warning and decision notices under the regulations as it applies to referrals and notices under the Act. The AIFMD UK regulation also applies sections 205 and 206 of the Act to unauthorised AIFMs and, accordingly, the FCA will give third party rights (section 393 of the Act) and access to material
EG 19.27.10RP
2As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA's settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.27.12RP
2Regulation 71(2) of the AIFMD UK regulation applies section 169 of the Act in respect of unauthorised AIFMs, which requires the FCA to have a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. The FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
SUP 14.6.1GRP
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
SUP 14.6.2GRP
In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.7
SUP 14.6.9GRP
Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.7
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FCA7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G (Revocation of recognition of overseas schemes (section 279)3).1733
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
PERG 2.5.4GRP
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of MiFID2. Certain2persons subject to the requirements of MiFID2 must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. A core element of MiFID is the concept of investment firm.2 An investment firm is any person whose regular occupation or2 business is2 the provision of one or more2investment services to third parties or the performance of one or more investment activities on a professional
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
PERG 2.5.6GRP
The IDD is, in part,8 implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance distribution or reinsurance distribution,8 in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated activities are unavailable
PERG 2.5.10GRP
(1) 7When deciding whether a person is a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm for the purposes of PERG 2.5.8G(1), it is necessary to take into account the services that that person is providing in relation to the product concerned.(2) For example, say that a UKperson does business in an option product to which PERG 2.5.7G applies. When deciding whether that product is a regulated option, it is not necessary for that person already to be:(a) a MiFID investment