Related provisions for IPRU-INV 2.1.1
41 - 54 of 54 items.
Table of FEES 4 rules that correspond to FEES 7 rules
FEES 4 rules |
Corresponding FEES 7 rules |
Part 1 of 6FEES 4 Annex 2A6 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 11 |
1Part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
1Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R or SYSC 22.9.1R7 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 3443
(1) This chapter does not apply to an authorised professional firm: (a) whose main business is the practice of its profession; and(b) whose regulated activities covered by this chapter are incidental to its main business.(2) A firm's main business is the practice of its profession if the proportion of income it derives from professional fees is, during its annual accounting period, at least 50% of the firm's total income (a temporary variation of not more than 5% may be disregarded
1Subject to the exemptions in SYSC 10A.1.4R, this chapter applies to a firm:(1) that is a:(a) UK MiFID investment firm; or(b) full-scope UK AIFM; or(c) small authorised UK AIFM or residual CIS operator; or(d) incoming EEA AIFM; or(e) UCITS management company; or(f) MiFID optional exemption firm, performing activities covered by the exemption; or(g) EEA MiFID investment firm; or(h) third country investment firm; or(i) that carries on activities referred to in the general application
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted rapidly and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement
(1) A firm should:(a) before using
the services of the intermediary, check:(i) the Financial Services Register; or(ii) in relation
to insurance mediation carried
on by an EEA firm, the register
of its Home State regulator;for the status of the person; and(b) use the services
of that person only if the relevant register indicates that the person is
registered for that purpose.(2) (a) Checking the Financial Services Register before using the services of the
intermediary and using
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
Financial promotions made only to or directed only at certain types of person who are sophisticated enough to understand the risks involved are exempt. These are:(1) authorised persons;(2) exempt persons (where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity which is a regulated activity for which the person is exempt);(3) governments and local authorities; and(4) persons whose ordinary business involves carrying on a controlled activity of the kind to which the financial
(1) An authorised professional firm regulated by the Law Society (of England and Wales), the Law Society of Scotland or the Law Society of Northern Ireland that, with respect to its regulated activities, is subject to the following rules of its designated professional body, must comply with those rules and, where relevant paragraph (3), and if it does so, it will be deemed to comply with the client money rules.(2) The relevant rules are: (a) if the firm is regulated by the Law
Under section 107(2) of the Act, the application to the court may be made by the transferor or the transferee or both. As soon as reasonably practical, the intended applicant should choose their nominee for independent expert in the light of any criteria advised by the appropriate regulator. The intended applicant(s) should then advise the appropriate regulator of their choice, unless the appropriate regulator8 wishes them to defer nomination or to make its own nomination. The