Related provisions for SYSC 22.5.13
81 - 100 of 383 items.
To comply with COBS 6.1D.11R, a firm's disclosure should be in cash terms (or convert non-cash terms into illustrative cash equivalents) and should:(1) include information as to the period over which the consultancy charge is payable;(2) provide information on the implications for the employee if the employee leaves the employer’s service or their contributions to the group personal pension scheme or group stakeholder pension scheme are cancelled before the consultancy charge
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which he is asked
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
(1) For the authorised fund manager's periodic charge or for payments out of scheme property to the investment adviser, the prospectus may permit a payment based on a comparison of one or more aspects of the scheme property or price in comparison with fluctuations in the value or price of property of any description or index or other factor designated for the purpose (a "performance fee").(2) Any performance fee should be specified in the appropriate manner in the prospectus and
(1) Any payment as a result of effecting transactions for the authorised fund should be made from the capital property of the scheme.(2) Other than the payments in (1), all other payments should be made from income property in the first instance but may be transferred to the capital account in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R (1) (Allocation of payments to income or capital).(3) For payments transferred to the capital property of the scheme in accordance with (2), the prospectus
An affected person is not liable to account to another affected person or to the unitholders of any scheme for any profits or benefits it makes or receives that are made or derived from or in connection with:(1) dealings in the units of a scheme; or(2) any transaction in scheme property; or(3) the supply of services to the scheme;where disclosure of the non-accountability has been made in the prospectus of the scheme.
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must provide the management company of its feeder UCITS with all documents and information necessary for the latter to meet its regulatory obligations under the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 60(1) first paragraph first sentence of the UCITS Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the competent authority of the feeder UCITS;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
Subject to CASS 5.5.41 R,
a firm that holds or intends
to hold client money with a
bank which is in the same group as
the firm must:(1) undertake
a continuous review in relation to that bank which is at least as rigorous
as the review of any bank which is not in the same group,
in order to ensure that the decision to use a group bank
is appropriate for the client;(2) disclose
in writing to its client at
the outset of the client relationship
(whether by way of a client agreement,4terms
of
A firm must
not undertake any transaction for a consumer5 that involves client money being
passed to another broker or settlement agent located
in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom,
unless the firm has previously
disclosed to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client agreement 4or otherwise in writing):554(1) that
his client money may be passed
to a person outside the United Kingdom but the client may
notify the firm that he does
not wish his money to be
(1) A firm must disclose to the customer the fee, if any, payable by a customer to the firm for its services. [Note: section 160A(4) of CCA] (2) Any fee to be paid by the customer to the firm must be agreed between the customer and the firm, and that agreement must be recorded in writing or other durable medium before a regulated credit agreement is entered into.[Note: section 160A(4) of CCA] (3) A firm must disclose to the lender the fee, if any, for its activity payable by the
(1) 1A firm must not:(a) request, claim, demand, initiate or take payment of a charge from a customer, or from the customer's payment account, in connection with services it has provided or is to provide; or(b) if the purpose, or one of the purposes, is to collect such a charge from a customer, invite or induce a customer to provide information in relation to a payment card or instrument that would enable a payment from the customer's payment account to be initiated by or through
Principles 6 (Customers' interests), 7 (Communications with clients), 8 (Conflicts of interest), 9 (Customers: relationships of trust) and 10 (Clients' assets) impose requirements on firms expressly in relation to their clients or customers. These requirements depend, in part, on the characteristics of the client or customer concerned. This is because what is "due regard" (in Principles 6 and 7), "fairly" (in Principles 6 and 8), "clear, fair and not misleading" (in Principle
If the person with or for whom the firm is carrying on an activity is acting through an agent, the ability of the firm to treat the agent as its client under COBS 2.4.3 R3 (Agent as client) will not be available. For example, if a general insurer is effecting a general insurance contract through a general insurance broker who is acting as agent for a disclosed policyholder, the policyholder will be a client of the firm and the firm must comply with the Principles accordingly.
Reasonable assistance in SUP 5.5.9 R should include:(1) access at all reasonable business hours for the skilled person to the firm's accounting and other records in whatever form;(2) providing such information and explanations as the skilled person reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the performance of his duties; and (3) permitting a skilled person to obtain such information directly from the firm's auditor as he reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the
2Section 166(7) of the Act (as applied by article 23(2)(b) of the MCD Order) imposes, in appropriate circumstances, a duty on CBTL firms to give the skilled person all such assistance as the skilled person may reasonably require. Where this duty applies to a CBTL firm, the FCA expects the CBTL firm to:(1) take reasonable steps to ensure that, when reasonably required by the skilled person, each of its appointed representatives waives any duty of confidentiality;(2) take reasonable
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted, as at or in the year to 31 December of the previous year as appropriate, in relation to the tariff base for each of the relevant industry
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
The notice required by CONC 7.19.4 R must contain:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it relates to default sums and is given in compliance with FCArules;(2) the date of the notice;(3) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(4) the firm's name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate, any other address;(5) the amount and nature of each default sum payable under the agreement which has not been the subject of a previous notice of default sums;(6)
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
(1) The FCA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FCA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
The firm (or, where applicable, a successor) must as soon as reasonably practicable, and no later than 29 November 2017, send a written communication to the complainant which:(1) informs the complainant that, despite having already made a complaint in relation to the sale of a payment protection contract, they can make a further complaint against the CCA lender in relation to a failure to disclose commission;(2) makes clear the identity of the CCA lender, where this is known to
The obligation to send a written communication does not apply where, in relation to the relevant payment protection contract the firm, or where appropriate the Financial Ombudsman Service, has previously considered, or indicated to the complainant in writing that it will consider, a complaint on the basis of a failure to disclose profit share and/or commission.
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract contains a fixed borrowing rate in relation to the initial period of at least five years, at the end of which a negotiation on the borrowing rate must take place to agree on a new fixed rate for a further material period, the calculation of the additional, illustrative APRC disclosed in the ESIS must:(1) cover only the initial fixed-rate period; and(2) be based on the assumption that, at the end of the fixed borrowing rate period, the capital
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract:(1) allows for variations in the borrowing rate; and(2) it does not fall within MCOB 10A.1.5 R,the ESIS must contain an additional APRC which illustrates the possible risks linked to a significant increase in the borrowing rate. Where the borrowing rate is not capped, this information must be accompanied by a warning highlighting that the total cost of the credit to the consumer, shown by the APRC, may change.[Note: article 17(6) of the M
(1) The firm must disclose to the consumer:(a) in good time before or, if that is not possible, immediately after the consumer is bound by a contract that attracts a right to cancel or withdraw; and(b) in a durable medium;the existence of the right to cancel or withdraw, its duration and the conditions for exercising it including information on the amount which the consumer may be required to pay, the consequences of not exercising it and practical instructions for exercising
A firm is required to provide the FCA2 with a wide range of information to enable the FCA2 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FCA2 must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in part 4A of the Employment Rights Act 19963;3(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in the public interest3, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:3(a) a criminal offence;