Related provisions for CASS 7A.2.3
21 - 40 of 178 items.
(1) A firm may arrange for records to be kept in such form as it chooses, provided the record is readily accessible for inspection by the FCA.(2) Where a firm chooses to maintain records in electronic form, it should take reasonable steps to ensure that:(a) the electronic record accurately reflects the original information; and (b) the electronic record has not been subject to unauthorised or accidental alteration.
3It is important that the FCA maintains an accurate public record. One of the ways the FCA does this is by publishing1 the reasons for variations of Part 4A permission, the imposition of requirements and variations of the approval of SMF managers1. The FCA will always aim to balance1 the interests of consumers and the possibility of unfairness to the person subject to the FCA's action. The FCA will publish relevant details of1 fundamental and non-fundamental variations of Part
(1) 1A firm's up-to-date list of mandates under CASS 8.3.2 R (1) must be maintained in a medium that allows the storage of information in a way accessible for future reference by the FCA or by an auditor preparing a report under SUP 3.10.4 R.(2) It must be possible for any corrections or other amendments, and the contents of the list prior to such corrections and amendments, to be easily ascertained.
(1) A firm should consider past versions of its statements of responsibilities as an important part of its records and as an important resource for the FCA in supervising the firm.(2) Past versions of a firm'sstatements of responsibilities form part of its records under SYSC 9.1 (General rules on record-keeping).
Exposures include not only principal amounts borrowed under facilities but also interest accrued which will fluctuate between payment dates. To ensure proper coverage of interest, the FCA expects firms to take the following approach:(1) accrued interest to date should be included in current exposure for performing exposures;(2) firms may choose whether estimated increases in accrued interest up to the time of default should be included in LGD or EAD;(3) in the estimation of EAD,
To be satisfied that the requirements in article 179(1) of the EU CRR are met, the FCA expects a firm to collect data on what it considers to be the main drivers of the risk parameters of probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), conversion factors (CFs) and expected loss (EL) for each group of obligors or facilities, to document the identification of the main drivers of risk parameters, and be able to demonstrate that the process of identification is reasonable and
The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
(1) 1A Solvency II firm (including a large non-directive insurer)2 must have, and maintain, a governance map which satisfies the following conditions:(a) it complies, as applicable,2 with PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Insurance – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2, or PRA Rulebook: Large Non-Solvency II firms – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2,2 as if those rules had been made by the FCA; (b) it includes details relating to all persons carrying out a significant
2A small non-directive insurer must keep an up-to-date record of the scope of responsibilities for each approved person performing a significant influence function and must:(1) retain each version of the record for six years from the date on which it was superseded by a more up-to-date record;(2) be in a position to provide any version of the record in (1) to the FCA on request;(3) ensure that the record in (1) and each updated version:(a) has the form and content, subject to
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3G includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single