Related provisions for SUP 6.2.4

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SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the appropriate regulator35 notice of:35(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
SYSC 3.2.2GRP
A firm's reporting lines should be clear and appropriate having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business. These reporting lines, together with clear management responsibilities, should be communicated as appropriate within the firm.
TC App 6.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1

1

2.

Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.

3.

[deleted]1

1

Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies

4.

In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:

(1)

the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and

(2)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

5.

An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.

6.

When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:

(1)

carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;

(2)

ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;

(3)

take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and

(4)

request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.

7.

The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.

8.

The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

9.

Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.

Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession

10.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.

Carrying out effective verification services

11.

If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.

12.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:

(1)

verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1

(2)

verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and

(3)

verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.

13.

The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.

14.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will withdraw its statement of professional standing if the accredited body is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER.

In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.

Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness

15.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.

16.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.

17.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER.

Ongoing cooperation with the FCA

18.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.

19.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.

20.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

Withdrawal of accreditation

21.

If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.
PERG 9.2.1GRP
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
SYSC 20.2.6GRP
In carrying out its reverse stress testing, a firm should consider scenarios in which the failure of one or more of its major counterparties or a significant market disruption arising from the failure of a major market participant, whether or not combined, would cause the firm's business to fail.
INSPRU 1.5.13BGRP
In INSPRU 1.5.13A R related operations include, for example, activities such as provision of statistical or actuarial advice, risk analysis or research for its clients. It may also include a holding company function and activities with respect to financial sector activities within the meaning of Article 2, point 8, of the Financial Groups Directive. But it does not allow the carrying on of, for example, unrelated banking and financial activities.
COLL 5.7.11GRP
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
INSPRU 3.2.3RRP
(1) This section applies to a firm in relation to the whole of its business, except where a particular provision provides for a narrower scope.(2) Where a firm carries on both long-term insurance business and general insurance business, this section applies separately to each type of business.
SYSC 4.3.3GRP
The supervisory function does not include a general meeting of the shareholders of a firm,2 or equivalent bodies, but could involve, for example, a separate supervisory board within a two-tier board structure or the establishment of a non-executive committee of a single-tier board structure.
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
SUP 10A.6.18GRP
This function is having the responsibility, alone or jointly with one or more others, under the immediate authority of the governing body:(1) for the conduct of the whole of the business (or relevant activities); or(2) in the case of a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, for the conduct of all of the activities subject to the UKregulatory system.
BIPRU 12.3.15ERP
(1) In relation to all significant business activities, a firm should ensure that it accurately quantifies liquidity costs, benefits and risks and fully incorporates them into:(a) product pricing;(b) performance measurement and incentives; and(c) the approval process for new products.(2) For the purposes of (1), a firm should ensure that it: (a) includes significant business activities whether or not they are accounted for on-balance sheet; and(b) carries out the exercise of quantification
COLL 8.3.4RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.3.2 R.

1

Document status

A statement that this document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date which shall be the date of the document.

2

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is either an ICVC or an AUT;

(3)

that the scheme is a qualified investor scheme;

(4)

where relevant, that the unitholders in an ICVC are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(5)

where relevant, the address of the ICVC's head office and the address in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(6)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FCA and, if the duration of the authorised fund is not unlimited, when it will or may terminate;

(7)

the base currency for the authorised fund;

(8)

where relevant, the maximum and minimum sizes of the ICVC's capital; and

(9)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund may be wound up under the rules in COLL and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up.

3

Investment objectives and policy

(1)

Sufficient information to enable a unitholder to ascertain:

(a)

the investment objectives of the authorised fund;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including:

(i)

the general nature of the portfolio and any intended specialisation;

(ii)

the policy for the spreading of risk in the scheme property; and

(iii)

the policy in relation to the exercise of borrowing powers;

(c)

a description of any restrictions in the assets in which investment may be made; and

(d)

the extent (if any) to which that investment policy does not envisage remaining fully invested at all times.

(2)

For investment in immovables :

(a)

the countries or territories of immovables in which the authorised fund may invest;

(b)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of immovables forming part of the scheme property; and

(c)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to the granting of options over immovables in the scheme property and the purchase of options on immovables.

(3)

If intended, whether the scheme property may consist of units in collective investment schemes ("second schemes") which are managed by or operated by the authorised fund manager or by one of its associates and a statement as:

(a)

to the basis of the maximum amount of the charges in respect of transactions in a second scheme; and

(b)

the extent to which any such charges will be reimbursed to the scheme.

(4)

If intended, whether the scheme may enter into stock lending transactions and, if so, what procedures will operate and what collateral will be required.

(5)

Where a scheme is a feeder scheme which (in respect of investment in units in a single collective investment scheme) is dedicated to units in a collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it;8

(6)

Where the scheme is a money market fund or a short-term money market fund, a statement identifying it as such a fund and a statement that the scheme's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions in the definition of money market fund or short-term money market fund, as appropriate.9

4

Distributions and accounting dates

Relevant details of accounting and distribution dates and a description of the procedures:

(1)

for determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid); and

(2)

relating to unclaimed distributions.

5

The characteristics of units in the authorised fund

Information as to:

(1)

the names of the classes of units in issue or available for issue and the rights attached to them in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(2)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these are; and

(3)

the circumstances where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required.

6

The authorised fund manager

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the date of its incorporation and if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease;

(4)

if it is a subsidiary, the name of its ultimate holding company and the country or territory in which that holding company is incorporated;

(5)

the address of its registered office, its head office, and, if different, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(6)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up;

(7)

for an ICVC, a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the authorised fund manager which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; and

(8)

for an AUT, the names of the directors of the manager.

7

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

Other than for the ACD:

(1)

the names and positions in the ICVC of the directors; and

(2)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of the directors.

8

The depositary

The following particulars of the depositary:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the address of its registered office and the address of its head office if that is different from the address of its registered office; and

(4)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom.

9

The investment adviser

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund, its name and whether or not it is authorised by the FCA.

10

The auditor

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

11

The register of Unitholders

Details of the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders is kept and can be inspected by unitholders.

12

Payments out of the scheme property

The payments that may be made out of the scheme property to any person whether by way of remuneration for services, or reimbursement of expense and for each category of remuneration or expense, the following should be specified:

(1)

the current rates or amounts of such remuneration;

(2)

how the remuneration will be calculated and accrue and when it will be paid;

(3)

if notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager's intention to:

(a)

introduce a new category of remuneration for its services; or

(b)

increase the basis of any current charge; or

(c)

change the basis of the treatment of a payment from the capital property set out in COLL 8.5.13 R (2) (Payments);

particulars of that introduction or increase and when it will take place;

(4)

the types of any other charges and expenses that may be taken out of the scheme property; and

(5)

if, in accordance with COLL 8.5.13 R (2), all or part of the remuneration or expense are to be treated as a capital charge:

(a)

that fact; and

(b)

the basis of the charge which may be so treated

13

Dealing

Details of:

(1)

the dealing days and times in the dealing day on which the authorised fund manager will receive requests for the sale and redemption of units;

(2)

the procedures for effecting:

(a)

the issue and cancellation of units;

(b)

the sale and redemption of units; and

(c)

the settlement of transactions;

(3)

the steps required to be taken by a unitholder in redeeming units before he can receive the proceeds including any relevant notice periods and the circumstances and periods where a deferral of payment as provided in COLL 8.5.11 R (3) (Sale and redemption) may be applied;

(4)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(5)

the days and times in the day on which recalculation of the price will commence;

(6)

details of the minimum number or value of each type of unit in the authorised fund which:

(a)

any one person may hold; and

(b)

may be the subject of any one transaction of sale or redemption;

(7)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for, a redemption of units in specie;

(8)

the circumstances in which the further issue of units in any particular class may be limited and the procedures relating to this:66

(9)

the circumstances in which direct issue or cancellation of units by the ICVC or the trustee (as appropriate) may occur and the relevant procedures for such issues and cancellations; and66

(10)

6whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer.6

14

Valuation of scheme property

Details as to:

(1)

how frequently and at what times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued to determine the price at which units in the scheme may be purchased from or redeemed by the authorised fund manager and a description of any circumstance where the scheme property may be specially valued;

(2)

in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued, the basis on which it will be valued; and

(3)

how the price of units of each class will be determined, including whether a forward price or historic price basis is to be applied.

15

Sale and redemption charges

If the authorised fund manager makes any charges on sale or redemption of units, details of the charging structure and how notice will be provided to unitholders of any increase.

15A5

Property Authorised Investment Funds

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

16

General information

Details as to:

(1)

when annual and half- yearly reports will be published; and

(2)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained.

17

Information on the umbrella

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(1)

that a unitholder may exchange units in one sub-fund for units in another sub-fund and that such an exchange is treated as a redemption and sale;

(2)

what charges may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in other sub-funds;

(3)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(4)

in respect of each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the umbrella; and

(5)

for an ICVC, that:10

10

10(a)

its sub-funds are segregated portfolios of assets and, accordingly, the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose; and

10(b)

while the provisions of the OEIC Regulations provide for segregated liability between sub-funds, the concept of segregated liability is relatively new. Accordingly, where claims are brought by local creditors in foreign courts or under foreign law contracts, it is not yet known how those foreign courts will react to regulations 11A and 11B of the OEIC Regulations.

18

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(1)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(2)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

318A

Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle3

If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles is to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme.3

19

Additional information

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by the making of reasonable enquiries which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating.
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10A.7.1 R17) and an application must be made under section 59 of the Act for approval of the individual before the function is performed. There are exceptions from this in SUP 10A.117 (Approved persons - Application).

1717

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The appropriate regulator considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals may nevertheless require approval under section 59 (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the appropriate regulator, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The appropriate regulator envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval under section 59 in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.
DTR 3.1.2AGRP
(1) 5The Act provides that an individual who is not a director can still be a person discharging managerial responsibilities in relation to an issuer if they are a "senior executive of such an issuer" and they meet the criteria set out in the Act.(2) 5An individual may be a "senior executive of such an issuer" irrespective of the nature of any contractual arrangements between the individual and the issuer and notwithstanding the absence of a contractual arrangement between the
SUP 1A.1.4GRP
(1) In designing its approach to supervision, the FCA has regard to the regulatory principles set out in section 3B of the Act. In particular, the FCA's regulatory approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management of each firm (section 3B(1)(d) of the Act) to ensure that it takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility
LR 13.4.8RRP
If a class 1 transaction relates to the acquisition of a scientific research based company or related assets, the class 1 circular must contain an explanation of the transaction's impact on the acquirer's business plan and the information set out in Section 1c of Part III (Scientific research based companies) 1of the ESMA recommendations.313
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company; and5

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the scheme.

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the scheme.