Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11

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COND 1.3.1GRP
The guidance in COND 2 explains each threshold condition in Part I of Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and how the FSA will interpret it in practice. An overview of the threshold conditions is given in COND 1 Annex 1 G. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FSA under section 41 (the threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FSA must ensure that the firm
COND 1.3.2GRP
(1) The FSA will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.(2) In relation to threshold conditions 4 and 5, the FSA will consider whether a firm is ready, willing and organised to comply, on a continuing basis, with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system which
COND 1.3.3GRP
Although the FSA may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FSA, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the threshold conditions. The FSA will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to the regulatory objectives set out in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's general duties). A firm
COND 1.3.4GRP
(1) For ease of reference, the threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (2) As these provisions impose obligations, they are printed in bold type. The use of bold type is not intended to indicate that these quotations are rules made by the FSA.(3) Where words have been substituted for the text of these provisions the substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). However, none of the changes made by the FSA in these quotations
APER 4.4.3ERP
In the opinion of the FSA, conduct of the type described in APER 4.4.4 E, APER 4.4.7 E, or APER 4.4.9 E does not comply with Statement of Principle 4 (APER 2.1.2 P).
APER 4.4.4ERP
Failing to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal procedures (or if none exist direct to the FSA), information which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to theFSA, whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 E.
APER 4.4.5GRP
There is no duty on an approved person to report such information directly to the FSA unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the FSA. However, if an approved person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report to the FSA or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the FSA, then the FSA will, in respect of that information, view him as being one of those within the firm who has
APER 4.4.6ERP
In determining whether or not an approved person's conduct under APER 4.4.4 E complies with Statement of Principle 4, the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the likely significance to the FSA of the information which it was reasonable for the individual to assume;(2) whether the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether any decision not to report the matter internally was taken after reasonable enquiry
APER 4.4.8ERP
In determining whether or not an approved person's conduct under APER 4.4.7 E complies with Statement of Principle 4(APER 2.1.2 P), the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FSA, are to be taken into account:(1) the likely significance of the information to the FSA which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether any decision not to inform the FSA was taken after reasonable enquiry and analysis of the situation.
SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FSA has the power under section 45of the Act (Variation on the Authority's own initiative) to vary a firm's Part IV permission. This includes imposing a statutory requirement or limitation on that Part IV permission. (See AUTH 3.6 and AUTH 3.7 for a further explanation of potential limitations and requirements on a firm's permission.)
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FSA may vary a firm'sPart IV permission on its own initiative under section 45 of the Act include where it appears to the FSA that:(1) one or more of the threshold conditions is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
SUP 7.2.3GRP
The FSA may also use its powers under section 45 for enforcement purposes. ENF 3 sets out in detail the FSA's powers under section 45 and the circumstances under which the FSA may vary a firm's permission in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its day to day supervision of firms. This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FSA will use these powers for supervision purposes.
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FSA may use its powers under section 45 of the Act only in respect of a Part IV permission ; that is, a permission granted to a firm under section 42 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
SUP 7.2.5GRP
If the FSA exercises its powers under section 45 of the Act, it will do so by issuing a supervisory notice. The procedure that will be followed is set out in DEC 3 and a flowchart is provided in DEC 3 Annex 2.
SUP 7.2.6GRP
A firm has a right of referral to the Financial Services and Markets Tribunal (see DEC 5) in respect of the exercise by the FSA of its powers to vary, on its own initiative, the firm'sPart IV permission.
PERG 8.12.6GRP
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
PERG 8.12.8GRP
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
PERG 8.12.11GRP
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
PERG 8.12.19GRP
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
PERG 8.12.20GRP
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FSA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
PERG 8.12.22GRP
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
PERG 8.12.25GRP
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
PERG 8.12.26GRP
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment. In such cases, the exemption is subject to a disclosure requirement which is itself
PERG 8.12.29GRP
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
PERG 8.12.30GRP
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FSA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
PERG 8.12.31GRP
It appears to the FSA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FSA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
PERG 8.12.34GRP
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
PERG 8.12.36GRP
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FSA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FSA cannot
FIT 1.2.1GRP
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
FIT 1.2.4GRP
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FSA should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FSA may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
SUP 17.3.1EURP

The requirements set out in this chapter represent an interim approach to transaction reporting, based on the reporting requirements which previous regulators applied to firms. A number of provisions reflect the interim nature of the requirements - notably the guidance in SUP 17.4.4. Also there are still significant differences in the requirements applicable to different categories of firm. To help firms the FSA intends to publish additional guidance from time to time covering developments and issues in transaction reporting (including sources of relevant information).

PERG 8.10.3GRP
In the FSA's view, the matters identified in PERG 8.10.2 G mean that:(1) for a communication to be real time it must be made in course of an interactive dialogue; but that(2) if the interactive dialogue takes place by means of the exchange of letters or e-mails or in a publication, the communication will be deemed to be non-real time. In this case, publications include newspapers, journals, magazines or other periodical publications, websites or similar systems for the electronic
PERG 8.10.4GRP
The words ‘personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue’ clearly imply that the first two are types of the third. In the FSA's view, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which a personal visit or telephone conversation would not be interactive. The very fact of a conversation taking place would mean two or more persons were interacting with each other. A telephone call is not the same thing as a conversation. It may be made to, or even by, an intelligent
PERG 8.10.5GRP
In the FSA's view, the fact that scope for interaction is essential if a financial promotion is to be real time leads to the following conclusions.(1) Most communications made in written or pictorial form will not offer scope for interaction. The most likely exception to this is where persons are expected to respond immediately. This situation may arise, for example, where the equivalent of a telephone conversation is conducted by e-mail. This is the basis of the exemption in
PERG 8.10.7GRP
In the FSA's view, a communication which may exist in enduring form will be a non-real time communication. Examples of this include videos, audio cassettes, bulletin boards, websites and recorded telephone messages. Messages placed on Internet chat-rooms will also be non-real time. Radio or television programmes or teletext services may contain communications that involve an interactive dialogue. For example, a communication made by the broadcaster and addressed to an interviewee
PERG 8.10.11GRP
PERG 8.6.9 G explains that article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order has the broad effect that a communication is made to another person where it is addressed to a particular person or persons. It also states that a ‘recipient’ of a communication is the person or persons to who it is made (that is to whom it is addressed). This takes on importance where certain exemptions which apply to real time financial promotions made to a person are concerned. It appears to the FSA that,
PERG 8.10.12GRP
In the FSA's view, persons who may be engaging in investment activity jointly include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons, who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective managers of a company
PERG 8.10.14GRP
In the FSA's view, the mere fact of a person accepting an invitation to attend a meeting does not automatically mean that he has initiated any dialogue which may take place during the meeting and which may amount to a financial promotion. This will depend on the facts of each case and such matters as the manner in which the invitations are made, the arrangements for acceptance and how the meeting is conducted. For example, the fact that investments or investment services will
SUP 9.2.1GRP
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be dealt with orally, although it is open to a person to seek a written confirmation from the FSA of oral guidance given by the FSA.
SUP 9.2.2GRP
A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, with the exception of requests for guidance on the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Markets and Exchanges Division. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request.
SUP 9.2.3GRP
A person who is not a firm should address his request for individual guidance to the appropriate department within the FSA. A person who is unsure of where to address his request may address his enquiry to the FSA, making clear the nature of the request.
SUP 9.2.4GRP
The FSA does not expect to enter into discussions on a 'no-name' basis about the affairs of an individual person except in relation to SUP 9.2.4A G.11
SUP 9.2.5GRP
The FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FSA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FSA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FSA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
SUP 9.2.6GRP
The FSA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FSA, the more likely it is that the FSA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request,
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity (for example, the business is to be transferred from a sole trader to a partnership or the other way around) it will need to apply to the FSA for cancellation of its Part IV permission and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part IV permission.
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part IV permission. See ofSUP 6.2.3 G

Question

Variation of Part IV permission

Cancellation of Part IV permission

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm's Part IV permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations or requirements in the firm's Part IV permission.

A firm's entire Part IV permission and not individual elements within it.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part IV permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm:

1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission (SUP 6.4); or

2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part IV permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part IV permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

Where do I find a summary of the application procedures?

See SUP 6 Annex 2 .

See SUP 6 Annex 3.

SUP 6.2.14GRP
A firm making an application to vary or cancel its Part IV permission which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this at the same time as applying to the FSA for the variation or cancellation. See SUP 6 Annex 4 for additional procedures.
LR 2.2.5GRP
The FSA may modify LR 2.2.4 R to allow partly paid securities to be listed if it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and proper basis. [Note: articles 46 and 54 CARD]
LR 2.2.6GRP
The FSA may in exceptional circumstances modify or dispense with LR 2.2.4 R where the applicant has the power to disapprove the transfer of shares if the FSA is satisfied that this power would not disturb the market in those shares. [Note: article 46 CARD]
LR 2.2.8GRP
The FSA may modify LR 2.2.7 R to admit securities of a lower value if it is satisfied that there will be an adequate market for the securities concerned. [Note: articles 43 and 58 CARD]
LR 2.2.10RRP
(1) This rule applies if under the Act or under the law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must be approved and published for the securities; or(b) the applicant is permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must have been approved by the FSA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA State is the Home Member State for the securities, the relevant competent authority must have supplied the FSA with:(i)
LR 2.2.11RRP
(1) This rule applies if, under LR 4, listing particulars must be approved and published for securities.(2) To be listed, listing particulars for the securities must have been approved by the FSA and published in accordance with LR 4.
LR 2.2.13GRP
The FSA may dispense with LR 2.2.12 R if it is satisfied that holders of the convertible securities have at their disposal all the information necessary to form an opinion about the value of the underlying securities. [Note: article 59 CARD]
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
COND 2.4.3GRP
(1) When assessing this threshold condition, the FSA may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 49 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant); for example, a firm's controllers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the threshold
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
SUP 14.3.3GRP
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
SUP 14.3.4GRP
Under regulation 5(4), the FSA is required, as soon as practicable after receiving the notice in SUP 14.3.3 G, to inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.
APER 3.1.2GRP
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons in issue at the time when any particular conduct takes place may be relied on so far as it tends to establish whether or not that conduct complies with a Statement of Principle.
APER 3.1.3GRP
The significance of conduct identified in the Code of Practice for Approved Persons as tending to establish compliance with or a breach of a Statement of Principle will be assessed only after all the circumstances of a particular case have been considered. Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case, the characteristics of the particular controlled function and the behaviour to be
APER 3.1.5GRP
In particular, in determining whether or not an approved person's conduct complies with a Statement of Principle, the FSA will take into account the extent to which an approved person has acted in a way that is stated to be in breach of a Statement of Principle.
APER 3.1.6GRP
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind of conduct that may contravene the Statements of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether or not a person's conduct complies with a Statement of Principle. The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FSA will amend the code if there is a risk that unacceptable
APER 3.1.9GRP
UK domestic firmslisted on the London Stock Exchange are subject to the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governance, whose internal control provisions are amplified in the Guidance for Directorsissued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales. FSA-regulated firms in this category will thus be subject to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. In forming an opinion whether approved persons have complied
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
COLL 6.9.3GRP
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT, the FSA would interpret the concept of directors in common to include
COLL 6.9.4GRP
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FSA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FSA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
COLL 6.9.5GRP
The FSA would encourage relevant parties to consult it in advance about its view on the consequences of any intended contractual commitment or relationship which could affect independence, whether directly or indirectly.
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
COLL 6.9.8GRP
When deciding whether COLL 6.9.7R is complied with, the FSA will take into account COLL 6.9.6G. COLL 6.9.7R applies generally and not just to the names that include the words "guaranteed" or "capital protected".
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition), the FSA has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body.
REC 4.7.2GRP
The FSA will revoke a recognition order if: (1) it is directed to do so by the Treasury under section 308 of the Act (Directions by the Treasury); or(2) the recognised body has asked the FSA to revoke the order.
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate for the FSA to give a direction
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be satisfiedin the following circumstances:(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act; or(3) the recognised
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying
COND 2.5.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 5 (Suitability), requires the firm to satisfy the FSA that it is 'fit and proper' to have Part IV permission having regard to all the circumstances, including its connections with other persons, the range and nature of its proposed (or current) regulated activities and the overall need to be satisfied that its affairs are and will be conducted soundly and prudently (see also PRIN and SYSC).(2) The FSA will also take into consideration anything that could
COND 2.5.3GRP
(1) The emphasis of this threshold condition is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FSA under the approved persons regime (see AUTH 6 (Approved persons), SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FSA may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective suitability of persons connected with the firm.(2) When assessing
COND 2.5.4GRP
(1) When determining whether the firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 5, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters include, but are not limited to, whether a firm:(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate that it conducts, or will conduct,
COND 2.5.6GRP
In determining whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, threshold condition 5 in respect of conducting its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards, the relevant matters, as referred to in COND 2.5.4 G (2), may include but are not limited to whether:(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FSA and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply
SUP 13.3.2GRP
A UK firm cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP 13.5.1 R), notice of its intention
SUP 13.3.2AGRP
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention relates as soon as
SUP 13.3.2CGRP
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).
SUP 13.3.5GRP
(1) If a UK firm has given the FSA a notice of intention in the required form, then:(a) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive, the Investment Services Directive, or the UCITS Directive, the FSA will give the Host State Regulator a Consent Notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure;(b) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Directives, the FSA will
SUP 13.3.6GRP
(1) If the FSA gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details (see SUP 13 Annex 1) or (if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives) the EEA relevant details (see SUP 13 Annex 2) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).
LR 10.8.1GRP
(1) A listed company in severe financial difficulty may find itself with no alternative but to dispose of a substantial part of its business within a short time frame to meet its ongoing working capital requirements or to reduce its liabilities. Due to time constraints it may not be able to prepare a circular and convene an extraordinary general meeting to obtain prior shareholder approval.(2) The FSA may modify the requirements in LR 10.5 to prepare a circular and to obtain shareholder
LR 10.8.2GRP
The listed company should demonstrate to the FSA that it could not reasonably have entered into negotiations earlier to enable shareholder approval to be sought.
LR 10.8.3GRP
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FSA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
LR 10.8.4GRP
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
LR 10.8.6GRP
(1) The FSA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FSA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.