Related provisions for REC 6.5.1
21 - 40 of 161 items.
A UK firm cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).The conditions are that:(1) the
If a UK firm has given the FSA a notice of intention in the required form, then:(1) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State Regulator within one month of receipt; or(2) (a) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from theInsurance Directives, paragraph 20(3A) of
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition); or(2) make a direction under section 296 (FSA's powers to give directions); or(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders);is a serious one and section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) sets out a procedure (see REC 4.8.9 G) which the FSA will follow unless, in the case of a revocation of a recognition order, the recognised body
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act may affect the regulatory objectives.
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act, the FSA will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.
The FSA will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FSA may require the report to be in whatever form it specifies in the notice (SUP 5 Annex 2 summarises the appointment and reporting processes).
A UK firm cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP 13.5.1 R), notice of its intention
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.1 |
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The FSA may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FSA etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
Within the legal constraints that apply, the FSA may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information he receives
A firm is required to provide the FSA with a wide range of information to enable the FSA to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
(1) Under section 41(2) of the Act (The threshold conditions), in giving or varying a Part IV permission or imposing or varying any requirement, the FSA must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part IV
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the FSA's own initiative) states that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power. Use of the FSA'sown-initiative power is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), ENF 3 (Variation of Part IV permission on the FSA's own initiative) and ENF 5 (Cancellation of Part IV permission on the FSA's own initiative and withdrawal
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FSA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
The Treasury have made the following exemptions:(1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2001 (SI 2001/2638));(2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change involves the acquisition of a holding of a specified percentage
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in this chapter may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions (see ENF 13.5). If it appears to the FSA that, in the exceptional circumstances of a particular case, the payment of any fee would be inequitable, the FSA may reduce or remit all or part of the fee in question which would otherwise be payable (see GEN 3.3.3 R
The FSA is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act if it considers that:(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or there has been a failure to comply with any other obligation in or under the Act which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that the recognition requirements, or other obligation in or under the Act, were satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), the FSA need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8), or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it essential to do so. The FSA is likely to consider it essential to cut short the procedure if, in the absence of immediate action, there would be:(1) a serious risk of substantial losses to investors, particularly private customers; or(2) a serious threat
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 Gand CIS 17.4.8 G (Revocation of recognition: Schemes recognised under section 264 of the Act).1