Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1

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SUP 6.3.1AGRP
25Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
25Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.2AGRP
25Under section 55L(5) of the Act a firm with a Part 4A permission may apply to the FCA for the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any requirement previously imposed by the FCA.
SUP 6.3.2CGRP
25An application may relate to one or more of SUP 6.3.1A G and SUP 6.3.2A G. For example, a firm may apply to vary its Part 4A permission to add a new regulated activity and at the same time remove a regulated activity for which it currently has permission.
SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part 4A permission,25 a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in the rest of the Handbook.102510
SUP 6.3.4GRP
In determining the activities and specified investments for which a Part 4A permission25 is required, and whether to apply for a variation of that permission, a firm may need to take professional advice and may also wish to discuss this with its appropriate supervisory contact.252525
SUP 6.3.6GRP
If a firm is seeking a variation of Part 4A permission25 to add categories of regulated activities, it should be mindful of the directive requirements referred to at SUP 6.3.42 G relating to the need to commence new activities within 12 months.25
SUP 6.3.7GRP
If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity for which it has Part 4A permission,25 it will usually apply to vary its Part 4A permission25 to remove that activity. If a firm wishes to cease carrying on an activity in relation to any specified investment, it will usually apply to vary its Part 4A permission25 to remove that specified investment from the relevant activity.252525
SUP 6.3.8GRP
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission25 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:25(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application); see:202525(i) SUP 10A.13.3D to SUP 10A.13.5G
SUP 6.3.9GRP
20A variation of a firm’sPart 4A permission may mean that it becomes a relevant authorised person. This would have a number of significant consequences, which include: (1) the application of the special powers in relation to misconduct by approved persons (see DEPP 6.2.9-AG);(2) the approved persons regime switches from SUP 10A to SUP 10C;(3) COCON applies in place of APER; (4) the certification regime described in SYSC 5.2 applies; (5) the criminal offence in section 36 of the
SUP 6.3.11GRP
A firm with Part 4A permission25 to carry on insurance business, which is applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission25 to add further insurance activities or specified investments, will be required to submit particular information on its existing activities as part of its application. This includes the scheme of operations which is required to be submitted as part of the application pack (for further details on the scheme of operations, see SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme
SUP 6.3.12GRP
In applying to vary its Part 4A permission25 to add categories of specified investments, in relation to insurance business, a firm carrying on insurance business will need to determine the classes of specified investments relating to effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance for which variation of Part 4A permission25 will be necessary, having regard to whether certain classes of contract may qualify to be effected or carried out on an ancillary or supplementary basis
SUP 6.3.13GRP
The application for variation of Part 4A permission25 will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part 4A permission25 is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FCA25 that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold
SUP 6.3.16GRP
(1) Section 55(U)(2)25 of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part 4A permission25 must contain a statement:2525(a) of the desired variation; and(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.(1A) Section 55(U)(3) of the Act requires that an application for variation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M or the imposition of a new requirement must
SUP 6.3.17GRP
(1) [deleted]7(2) A firm is advised to discuss its application with the relevant regulator25 before submission, particularly if it is seeking a variation of Part 4A permission or imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement25 within a short timescale. A firm is also advised to include as much detail as possible (including any additional information identified by its supervisors at this stage) with its application.72525
SUP 6.3.19GRP
A firm which is making an application for variation of Part 4A permission25 to wind down (run off) its business before applying for a cancellation of that permission (see SUP 6.2.9 G) should read SUP 6 Annex 4 for details of the additional procedures that apply.25
SUP 6.3.20GRP
In certain cases, the relevant regulator may consider that granting an application for imposition, variation or cancellation of any requirement or for variation of Part 4A permission25 which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the relevant regulator25 may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see the relevant
SUP 6.3.22GRP
The fees payable for a firm applying for the imposition, variation or cancellation of any requirements and/or a variation of its Part 4A permission are set out in FEES 3.25
SUP 6.3.28GRP
(1) The relevant regulator25 is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to gain or vary a Part 4A permission or to impose or vary a requirement25 satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have a Part 4A permission.2525251525(2) [deleted]25151525
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
25Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.28BGRP
(1) 25The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
SUP 6.3.31GRP
In considering whether to grant (or consent to, as the case may be)25 a firm's application to vary its Part 4A permission or impose or vary a requirement, the regulator concerned will also have regard, under section 55R(1)25 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person6 appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant. The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the regulator is exercising
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
25The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32BGRP
25Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
25If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34GRP
If limitationsare varied or imposed or requirements are imposed by the relevant regulator25 which were not included in the firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission, the relevant regulator25 will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).2525
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
25Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.39GRP
A decision to grant an application will be taken by appropriately experienced staff at the relevant regulator.25 However, if the staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission25 be either refused or granted subject to limitations or requirements or a narrower description of regulated activities than applied for, the decision will be subject to the regulator's formal decision making process.252525252525
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's25 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement25 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA25 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92525
SUP 6.3.41GRP
If the variation ofPart 4A permission is given, the relevant regulator25 will expect a firm to commence a new regulated activity in accordance with its business plan (revised as necessary to take account of changes during the application process) or scheme of operations for an insurer. Firms should take this into consideration when determining when to make an application to the relevant regulator.252525
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2525(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission25 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or25(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission25 for a period
SUP 6.3.43GRP
When a firm commences new regulated activities following a variation of a Part 4A permission,25 it should have particular regard to the requirements of Principle 11 (Relations with regulators) (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(c)).25
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part 4A5 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission5 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission5 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):5555335(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
SUP 6.2.3AGRP
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
SUP 6.2.3BGRP
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
SUP 6.2.3CGRP
5If a firm with a Part 4A permission wishes the FCA to: (1) impose a new requirement; or(2) vary a requirement imposed by the FCA; or(3) cancel such a requirement;it can apply to the FCA under section 55L(5) of the Act (Imposition of Requirements by FCA).
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity it will need to apply to the relevant regulator5 for cancellation of its Part 4A permission5 and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part 4A permission.55555
SUP 6.2.5GRP

Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G5

5Question

Variation of Part 4A permission

Cancellation of Part 4A permission

Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements

What does the application apply to?

Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission.

A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it.

Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action.

In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application?

If a firm:

1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or

2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4).

If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G).

If a firm:

1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or

2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled).

SUP 6.2.6GRP
A firm which is seeking: 5(1) to vary its Part 4A permission5 substantially; or5(2) to5 cancel its Part 4A permission; or55(3) the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any existing requirement;5should discuss its plans with its supervisory contact at the relevant regulator5 as early as possible before making an application, in order to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.7 G). These discussions will help the relevant regulator5 and the firm
SUP 6.2.7GRP
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the appropriate regulator5 to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the appropriate regulator5 before applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission.5555
SUP 6.2.9GRP
If an insurer,4 a bank, or a dormant account fund operator4 wishes to cease carrying on all regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission,5 it will usually be necessary to wind down the business over a long term period which is normally more than six months. This may also be the case for a firm holding client money or customer assets. In these circumstances, it will usually be appropriate for the firm to apply for variation of its Part 4A permission and/or imposition
SUP 6.2.10GRP
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator5 to discuss its circumstances. Discussions will focus on5 the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel itsPart 4A permission and/or the need to impose a new requirement, vary any existing requirement or cancel such a requirement. Following these discussions the firm should usually make the relevant application, as appropria
SUP 6.2.11GRP
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part 4A permission or for the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement before it applies for cancellation of Part 4A permission5 to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months
SUP 6.2.12GRP
A UK firm should assess the effect of any change to its Part 4A permission, or any requirements,5 on its ability to continue to exercise any EEA right or Treaty right and discuss any concerns with its appropriate supervisory contact(s). This5 may also change the applicable provisions with which it is required to comply by a Host State.55
SUP 6.2.13GRP
A UK firm which, as well as applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission,5 wishes to vary or terminate any business which it is carrying on in another EEA State under one of the Single Market Directives, should follow the procedures in SUP 13 (Exercise of passport rights by UK firms) on varying or terminating its branch or cross border services business.5
SUP 6.4.1AGRP
22Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
SUP 6.4.2AGRP
22Under section 55H(4) of the Act, the FCA may refuse an application from a firm to cancel its Part 4A permission if it considers that it is desirable to do so in order to advance any of its operational objectives.
SUP 6.4.3GRP
(1) A firm may apply to the relevant regulator to cancel its Part 4A permission22 before it has ceased carrying on all regulated activities. However, where a firm makes a formal application for cancellation of its permission when it has not yet ceased carrying on regulated activities, the relevant regulator22 will expect the firm:2222(a) to cease those regulated activities within the short term (normally no more than six months from the date of application for cancellation);
SUP 6.4.4GRP
Additional guidance for a firm carrying on insurance business, accepting deposits, operating a dormant account fund8 or which holds client money or customer's assets is given in SUP 6 Annex 4. As noted in SUP 6.2.9 G, it will usually be appropriate for a firm to apply for variation of its Part 4A permission and/or the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement22 while winding down (running off) its regulated activities and before applying to cancel its Part 4A per
SUP 6.4.5DRP
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the online notification and application system16.9112212129(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission22 in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.224 Alternatively a firm can contact the Contact Centre on 0300 500 0597.1422422221414(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: 422(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial Conduct22Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or22; or2222(b) email cancellation.team@fca.org.uk22(3)
SUP 6.4.7GRP
When an 4application is received4, the relevant regulator22 will send the firm a written acknowledgement. The firm will be required to provide information which, in the opinion of the relevant regulator,22 is necessary for it to determine whether to grant or refuse the application for cancellation of Part 4A permission.224422422422
SUP 6.4.8GRP
The information which the relevant regulator22 may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the relevant regulator22 may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part 4A permission22 to carry on.222222
SUP 6.4.12GRP
The relevant regulator22 will usually require the report in SUP 6.4.9 G to be signed by a director or other officer with authority to bind the firm. It may include confirmations from the firm that, in relation to business carried on under its Part 4A permission, it has:22(1) ceased carrying on all regulated activities;(2) properly disbursed funds in its client bank accounts and closed those accounts;(3) discharged all insurance or deposit liabilities; and(4) properly transferred
SUP 6.4.18GRP
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that is not a relevant authorised person);15(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for a relevant authorised person); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the appropriate regulator of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These
SUP 6.4.19GRP
The relevant regulator22 will usually not cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission22 until the firm can demonstrate that, in relation to business carried on under that permission, it has, as appropriate:2222(1) ceased carrying on regulated activities or fully run off or transferred all insurance liabilities;(2) repaid all client money and client deposits;(3) discharged custody assets and any other property belonging to clients; and(4) discharged, satisfied or resolved complaints against
SUP 6.4.21GRP
Before the relevant regulator22 cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,22 the firm will be expected to be able to demonstrate that it has ceased or transferred all regulated activities under that permission. For example, the firm may be asked to provide evidence that a transfer of business (including, where relevant, any client money, customer assets or deposits or insurance liabilities) is complete. As noted in SUP 6.4.9 G, the relevant regulator22 may require the firm to confirm
SUP 6.4.22GRP
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the relevant regulator22 will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:22(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.11.34R 13 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty)22 and CASS 7.11.50 R135(Client money: allocated but unclaimed
SUP 6.4.23GRP
If an application for cancellation of a firm'sPart 4A permission has been granted and a firm's status as an authorised person has been withdrawn (see SUP 6.5) it will remain subject to certain investigative and enforcement powers as a former authorised person. These include:2222(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (seeEG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers)6);6(2) powers to apply
SUP 6.4.28GRP
A decision to grant an application for cancellation of permission will be taken by appropriately experienced staff at the relevant regulator.22 Where, however, the staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for cancellation of Part 4A permission22 be refused, the decision will be subject to the regulator's formal decision making process.22222222322
PERG 2.8.2GRP
Three9 exclusions apply10 to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. The first is that a10deposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. The second relates to a firm with a Part 4A permission to manage an AIF or manage a UCITS (see PERG 2.9.22 G (Managers of UCITS and AIFs)).10 There is also excluded from accepting deposits any activity which
PERG 2.8.3GRP
The following activities are excluded from both the regulated activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance.(1) In specified circumstances, the activities of an EEA firm when participating in a Community co-insurance operation are excluded. A Community co-insurance operation is defined in the Solvency II Directive.1111(2) In specified circumstances, activities that are carried out in connection with the provision of on-the-spot accident or breakdown assistance
PERG 2.8.4GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any contractually based investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such contracts). The activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) Of particular significance is the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc). This applies where dealing in investments as principal
PERG 2.8.5GRP
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as agent applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any relevant investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such rights). In addition, the activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) An exclusion applies to certain transactions entered into by an agent who is not an authorised person which depend on him dealing with (or through) an authorised person. It does
PERG 2.8.6AGRP
3The exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order that relate to the various arranging activities are as follows.(-1) 8Under Article 24A(2), an activity that would otherwise be both arranging and bidding in emissions auctions is specifically excluded from arranging because the activity of bidding in emissions auctions does not form part of any other regulated activity (see PERG 2.7.6D G).(1) Under article 26, arrangements that do not or would not bring about the transaction to
PERG 2.8.7GRP
The activities of persons appointed under a power of attorney are excluded under article 38 of the Regulated Activities Order, from the regulated activity of managing investments, if specified conditions are satisfied. The exclusion only applies where a person is not carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation and is subject to further limitations discussed below2. In addition, the following exclusions (outlined in PERG 2.9) apply in specified circumstances where
PERG 2.8.7BGRP
The following exclusions from assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance also apply to a person in specified circumstances:(1) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G); or(2) in connection with the carrying on of a profession or of a business not otherwise consisting of regulated activities (see PERG 2.9.5 G); or(3) as an incoming ECA provider (see PERG 2.9.18 G); or(4) as a provider of non-motor goods or services related
PERG 2.8.8GRP
The exclusions from the regulated activity of safeguarding and administering investments are as follows.(1) Safeguarding and administration activities carried on by one person are excluded if a specified third party undertakes a responsibility for the assets which is no less onerous than it would have been if he were doing the safeguarding and administration himself. The effect of this is that an authorised person with permission to carry on this regulated activity (or in certain
PERG 2.8.9GRP
Exclusions from the regulated activity of sending dematerialised instructions apply in relation to certain types of instructions sent in the operation of the system maintained under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3755). The various exclusions relate to the roles played by participating issuers, settlement banks and network providers (such as Internet service providers) and to instructions sent in connection with takeover offers (as long as specified conditions
PERG 2.8.10GRP
10(1) The exclusion for incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G) applies to the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to AIFs and collective investment schemes (see PERG 2.7.13A G). The exclusion for business angel-led capital funds (see PERG 2.9.20 G) applies to the activities of managing an AIF, managing a UCITS and establishing, operating and winding up a collective investment scheme.10There is a third exclusion for insolvency practitioners (see PERG
PERG 2.8.11GRP
Three9 exclusions apply to10 the range of activities specified as being regulated in relation to stakeholder pension schemesand personal pension schemes2. The first10 relates to incoming ECA providers (see PERG 2.9.18 G). The second relates to firms with a Part 4A permission to manage an AIF or manage a UCITS (see PERG 2.9.22 G (Managers of UCITS and AIFs)).10The third relates to insolvency practitioners (see PERG 2.9.25 G).9109
PERG 2.8.12AGRP
3Advice given by an unauthorised person in relation to a home finance transaction or advising on regulated credit agreements for the acquisition of land12 in the circumstances referred to in PERG 2.8.6AG (5)(a) or (b) (Arranging deals in investments and arranging a home finance transaction) is also excluded. In addition:(1) the following exclusions apply in specified circumstances where a person is advising on investments, advising on regulated credit agreements for the acquisition
PERG 2.8.13GRP
Electronic commerce activities provided by an incoming ECA provider are excluded from the regulated activities that relate expressly to business carried on at Lloyds (see PERG 2.9.18 G). A firm with a Part 4A permission to manage an AIF or manage a UCITS is also excluded from carrying on a regulated activity if the person carries on that activity in connection with, or for the purposes of, managing an AIF or managing a UCITS (see PERG 2.9.22 G).10 Otherwise the only exclusions
PERG 2.8.14GRP
Entering as provider into afuneral plan contract is not treated as a regulated activity where:(1) the contract is one under which the sums received from the customer will be applied towards a contract of insurance on the life of the person whose funeral is to be provided or be held on trust for the purpose of providing a funeral; in each case certain specified conditions must be met for the exclusion to apply; or(2) the customer and the provider intend or expect that the funeral
PERG 2.8.14BGRP
3The following exclusions apply in specified circumstances where a person is administering a home finance transaction:55(1) while acting as trustee or personal representative (see PERG 2.9.3 G);(2) in connection with the carrying on of a profession or of a business not otherwise consisting of regulated activities (see PERG 2.9.5 G);10(3) as an incoming ECA provider (see PERG 2.9.18 G)109(4) in connection with, or for the purposes of, managing a UCITS or managing an AIF and the
SUP 6.5.1GRP
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
SUP 6.5.2AGRP
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
FEES 3.2.2GRP
If an application for a Part 4A permission (or exercise of a Treaty right) falls within more than one category set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, only one fee is payable. That fee is the one for the category to which the highest fee tariff applies.
FEES 3.2.3RRP
(1) Unless (2), (3)10 or (4)23 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.23(2) 15The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to:(a) become a recognised body or a designated professional body; or15(b) be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies.15(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission which is not an application
FEES 3.2.3ARRP
(1) 23If the fee payer (as specified in column (1) of FEES 3.2.7 R) in relation to FEES 3.2.3R (4) is:(a) unable to make a payment by credit or debit card; or(b) permitted to make a paper application rather than an online application for a Part 4A permission in respect of credit-related regulated activities only or a variation of its Part 4A permission to add a credit-related regulated activity;the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R can be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable
FEES 3.2.3BGRP
23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations or verification under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations45 or notification or registration
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 60

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 60

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 60

(4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

16034343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

58

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE58 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

5858

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to theFCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122955829558295582958295829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555585585

Where the firm has made an application directly to theFCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after theFCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

25829582958

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA

would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).60

(3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,58 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

(3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44

(i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44

(ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44

306041306060158583758376060371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77135913597722227

38

38

333

2(r) [deleted]46

66 566

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

5757375757375737

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) [deleted]46

20

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47

On or before the date the application is made.

47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.

47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i).

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

47On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the authorised payment institution50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50

the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

4747474747

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47

(2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

4747

On or before the date the application is made.

(zd)

47
47

[deleted]47

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]58

58
58 91658

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R.

50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

(3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41

(2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under CONRED 2.5.12R recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

58(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

58(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 60

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 60

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 60

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 60

On or before the application is made.60

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID49 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations.

Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below:

(1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000.

(2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1).

(3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.

On the date the application is made.

46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR.

(2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.

1) Unless (2) applies, 20,000.

(2) Any incoming data reporting services provider will pay 80% of the fee at (1).

On the date the application is made

46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MiFID49 and MiFIR.

(2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data.

(3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 10,000.

(2) Any incoming data reporting services provider authorised by another EEA State will pay 80% of the fee at (1).

On the date the application is made.

51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.

500

On or before the date the application is made.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

EG 8.5.1RP
1The FCA will consider cancelling a firm'sPart 4A permission using its own-initiative powers contained in sections 55J and 55Q respectively of the Act in two main circumstances: (1) where the FCA has very serious concerns about a firm, or the way its business is or has been conducted; (2) where the firm'sregulated activities have come to an end and it has not applied for cancellation of its Part 4A permission.
EG 8.5.2RP
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
EG 8.5.3RP
1Depending on the circumstances, the FCA may need to consider whether it should first use its own-initiative powers to impose requirements on a firm or to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission before going on to cancel it. Amongst other circumstances, the FCA may use this power where it considers it needs to take immediate action against a firm because of the urgency and seriousness of the situation.
EG 8.5.4RP
1Where the situation appears so urgent and serious that the firm should immediately cease to carry on all regulated activities, the FCA may first vary the firm'sPart 4A permission so that there is no longer any regulated activity for which the firm has a Part 4A permission. If it does this, the FCA will then have a duty to cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission - once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the Part 4A permission in force.
EG 8.5.5RP
1However, where the FCA has cancelled a firm'sPart 4A permission, it is required by section 33 of the Act to go on to give a direction withdrawing the firm'sauthorisation. Accordingly, the FCA may decide to keep a firm'sPart 4A permission in force to maintain the firm's status as an authorised person and enable it (the FCA) to monitor the firm's activities. An example is where the FCA needs to supervise an orderly winding down of the firm's regulated business (see SUP 6.4.22 (When
SUP 6.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to every firm with a Part 4A permission5 which wishes to:5(1) vary its Part 4A permission;5 or5(2) cancel its Part 4A permission5 and end its authorisation;555(3) have a new requirement imposed on it;5(4) vary a requirement imposed on it; or5(5) cancel a requirement imposed on it.5
SUP 6.1.3AGRP
(1) 5In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
SUP 6.1.4GRP
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with a Part 4A permission5 can apply to the relevant regulator5 to vary that permission;55(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has a Part 4A permission,5 or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the relevant regulator5 to cancel that permission completely; 55(2A) how a firm with a Part 4A permission can apply to the relevant regulator to:5(a)
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the relevant regulator's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part 4A permission5 has been cancelled at the firm's request.525
SUP 6.1.6GRP
5This chapter does not cover the FCA's use of its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission or its own-initiative requirement power to impose, vary or cancel a requirement (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
SUP 15.13.2GRP
The nature of a CBTL firm's obligation under article 12 of the MCD Order will depend on whether the CBTL firm has a Part 4A permission to carry on one or more regulated activities.
SUP 15.13.3GRP
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which has a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future. This does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it applies to cancel its Part 4A permission; or(3) it applies to vary its Part
SUP 15.13.4GRP
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which does not have a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future; this does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it changes its registered office or place of residence as the case
SUP 15.13.7GRP
The MCD Order requires notification to be given immediately. The FCA expects CBTL firms to act with all due urgency in notifying it of any relevant event, and it is unlikely that the FCA will regard delay in excess of 5 working days as complying with the CBTL firm's obligations.
SUP 7.2.1GRP
The FCA5 has the power under sections 55J and 55L5of the Act to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission and/or impose a requirement on a firm5 Varying a firm'sPart 4A permission5 includes imposing a limitation on that Part 4A permission.5555551
SUP 7.2.2GRP
The circumstances in which the FCA5 may vary a firm'sPart 4A permission5 on its own initiative or impose a requirement on a firm5 under sections 55J or 55L5 of the Act include where it appears to the FCA5 that:5555(1) one or more of the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible5 is or is likely to be no longer satisfied; or(2) it is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to meet any of the FCA's5 statutory objectives under the Act; or5335(3) a firm has not
SUP 7.2.4GRP
The FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 only in respect of a firm's5Part 4A permission5; that is, a permission granted to a firm under sections 55E or 55F5 of the Act (Giving permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier, this power applies only in relation to any top-up permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers under Part XIII of the Act in relation to the permission of an
SUP 7.2.4BGRP
5In the case of a dual-regulatedPRA-authorised person, the FCA may exercise its own-initiative variation power to add a new regulated activity other than a PRA-regulated activity to those activities already included in the firm'sPart 4A permission, or to widen the description of a regulated activity, only after consulting with the PRA.
SUP 7.2.6GRP
A firm has a right of referral to the Tribunal4 in respect of the FCA exercising its own-initiative powers on5 the firm'sPart 4A permission.5255
MIPRU 4.1.1RRP
2This chapter applies to a firm with Part 4A permission to carry on any of the following activities, unless an exemption in this section applies:(1) insurance mediation activity;(2) home finance mediation activity;11(3) home financing1;14114(4) home finance administration1.14114
MIPRU 4.1.2GRP
As this chapter applies only to a firm with Part 4A permission, it does not apply to an incoming EEA firm (unless it has a top-up permission). An incoming EEA firm includes a firm which is passporting into the United Kingdom under the Insurance Mediation Directive3. 3
MIPRU 4.1.6RRP
This chapter does not apply to a firm whose Part 4A permission is limited to regulated activities which are designated investment business.
MIPRU 4.1.18GRP
Social housing firms undertake small amounts of home finance1business even though their main business consists of activities other than regulated activities. Their home financing1is only done as an adjunct to their primary purpose (usually the provision of housing) and is substantially different in character to that done by commercial lenders. Furthermore, they are subsidiaries of local authorities or registered social landlords which are already subject to separate regulation.
FEES 3.1.6GRP
Applications for Part 4A permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) other than in respect of credit-related regulated activities7 are categorised by the 9FCA for the purpose of fee raising as straightforward, moderately complex and complex7 as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the 9FCA's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).979
FEES 3.1.6CGRP
18Application fees for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order are set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. The fee depends on whether the firm holds an existing Part 4A permission or an interim permission or has previously registered as a CBTL firm and that registration has been revoked under article 13 of the MCD Order.
FEES 3.1.7GRP
A potential applicant for Part 4A permission15 (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the 9FCA before submitting it formally.2 If an applicant for Part 4A permission15 (or Treaty firm) does so, the 9FCA will be able to use that dialogue to make an initial assessment of the fee categorisation and therefore indicate the authorisation fee that should be paid. 151515922151515159
FEES 3.1.8AGRP
Application fees for applications for and variations of Part 4A permission in respect of credit-related regulated activities are also set out in FEES 3 Annex 1F. Applications for Part 4A permission in respect of credit-related regulated activities are categorised by the 9FCA for the purposes of fee raising as straightforward, moderately complex and complex as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1, unless the application is for a limited permission.799[Note: PRA-authorised persons may also
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.37

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23

23192323

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

172223

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23

23

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A)

21

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824

27(5B)30

CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

33(5C)

CASS 7 loan-based crowdfunding firm

SUP 3.1-3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17

239281723

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

9(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

23281722

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025

32

25

9(7B)

Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

13(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

17(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 [deleted]23

171723

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23).

18

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

17Note 3A [deleted]23

23

20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets is an exempt investment firm as defined by article 8 of the MiFI Regulations.31 If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited.

20202222

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

SUP 3.1.3RRP
This chapter applies17to an incoming EEA firm (and the auditor of such a firm) only if it has a17top-up permission.171717
SUP 3.1.4GRP
The application of SUP 3.10 to the auditor of an incoming EEA firm with a top-up permission is qualified in SUP 3.10.3 R.
SUP 3.1.5RRP
This chapter does not apply to an incoming Treaty firm, which:(1) does not have a top-up permission; and(2) is not required to comply with the client asset rules.
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
SUP 13A.7.2GRP
Where theappropriate UK regulator3 grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the appropriate UK regulator3 is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator. 33
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part 4A permission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).

3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive.

PERG 5.12.11GRP
UK-based persons must obtain Part 4A permission in relation to their insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom as one of the following:(1) a body corporate whose registered office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(2) a partnership or unincorporated association whose head office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(3) an individual (that is, a sole trader) whose residence is situated in the United Kingdom.The United Kingdom will, in each case, be the Home State
PERG 5.12.12GRP
Non-UK-based persons wishing to carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom must:(1) qualify for authorisation by exercising passport rights (see section 31 (Authorised persons) and schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) to the Act and PERG 5.12.13 G to PERG 5.12.14 G (Passporting)); or(2) make use of the overseas persons exclusion (which then has the effect that activities are deemed not to be regulated activities carried on in the United Kingdom); or(3) seek Part
PERG 5.12.14GRP
On the other hand, non-EEA-based insurance intermediaries wishing to establish a branch in the UK for the purpose of carrying on insurance mediation activities may only do so with Part 4A permission.
EG 8.1.1RP
1The FCA has powers under section 55J of the Act to vary or cancel an authorised person’sPart 4A permission and a power under section 55L to impose requirements on an authorised person. The FCA may use these powers where: (1) the person is failing or is likely to fail to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible; (2) the person has not carried on a regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates for a period of at least 12 months (or six months
EG 8.1.2RP
1The powers to vary and cancel a person’s Part 4A permission and to impose requirements are exercisable in the same circumstances. However, the statutory procedure for the exercise of the own-initiative powers is different to the statutory procedure for the exercise of the cancellation power and this may determine how the FCA acts in a given case. Certain types of behaviour which may cause the FCA to cancel permission in one case, may lead it to impose requirements, vary, or vary
SUP 14.5.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm has been granted top-up permission by the appropriate UK regulator3 and wishes to vary that permission, the Act requires it to apply to the appropriate UK regulator3 for a variation of the top-up permission. 133
SUP 14.5.2GRP
Guidance3 on the procedures for applying for a variation of a permission granted under Part 4A3 of the Act, including a top-up permission, is given in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A3Permission).133
SUP 7.1.2GRP
The application of this chapter to an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier with a Part 4A permission2 (a "top-up permission") is limited as explained in SUP 7.2.4 G.2
FEES 5.9.3GRP
[deleted]3737
IPRU-INV 5.3.1RRP
1A firm must calculate its own funds in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.8, unless the firm has a Part 4A permission for acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS.
IPRU-INV 5.3.2RRP
For a firm that has a Part 4A permission for acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS, own funds has the meaning in article 4(1)(118) of the EU CRR.