Related provisions for SUP 10C.3.15
1 - 20 of 109 items.
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
To comply with SUP 4.3.9 R and Principle 3, before an actuary1 takes up his appointment the firm should ensure that the actuary: 1(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate1 under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
The PRA Rulebook requires9firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87
SUP 4.3.13 R is not intended to be exhaustive of the professional advice that a firm should take whether from an actuary appointed under this chapter or from any other actuary acting for the firm. Firms should consider what systems and controls are needed to ensure that they obtain appropriate professional advice on financial and risk analysis; for example:11(1) risk identification, quantification and monitoring;1(2) stress and scenario testing;1(3) ongoing financial conditions;1(4)
1An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function must:(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;(2) [deleted]88(2A) where the firm is a Solvency II firm, advise the firm'sgoverning body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the future discretionary
1Firms should normally obtain advice, from the actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function in respect of the affected class or classes of with-profits business, whenever they are preparing to make key decisions based on the exercise of discretion affecting their with-profits business. Firms should also have risk management processes in place to ensure that all relevant matters are referred to the actuary for advice.
A firm must require and allow any actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function1 to perform his duties and must1:11(1) keep him informed of the firm's business and other plans (including, where relevant, those of any related firm, to the extent it is aware of these);(2) provide him with sufficient resources (including his own time and access to the time of others);(3) hold such data and establish such systems as he reasonably requires;(4) request his advice about
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
(1) The appointment of an ACD terminates immediately upon it ceasing to be a director.(2) The appointment of an ACD terminates if a notice of termination of that appointment, the terms of which have been approved by a resolution of the board of directors of the ICVC, is given to the ACD.(3) If there is no director other than the ACD, the appointment of the ACD terminates if a notice of termination of that appointment is given by the depositary to the ACD and to the ICVC, following
If the ICVC ceases to have any directors, the depositary may:(1) retain the services of an authorised person to carry out the functions referred to in COLL 6.6.3 R (3) (a) and COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (b) ; or(2) manage the scheme property itself on behalf of the ICVC until a director is appointed or the winding up of the ICVC is commenced provided it is not prohibited from doing so by any law or rule.
(1) The authorised fund manager3 of an AUT3 or ACS3 is subject to removal by written notice by the depositary3 upon any of the following events:33(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the authorised fund manager3;3(b) an application being made to dissolve the authorised fund manager3 or to strike it off the Register of Companies;3(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the authorised fund manager3;3(d) the making of, or any proposals
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act) approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
1Section 59(2) is relevant where the person is employed by a contractor of the firm. It requires a firm ('A') to take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act) approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval
(1) SYSC 22.7.1R means that a firm recruiting someone from another member of its group is not required to request a reference from the other where the group has centralised records or alternative measures in place to ensure sharing of relevant information between its members. (2) The recruiting firm should be satisfied that the centralised or alternative measures ensure relevant information is made available as part of the fit and proper assessment of the recruit.
The Glossary definition of employer covers more than just a conventional employer and so it may not always be obvious who a person’semployer is. Therefore a full scope regulatory reference firm appointing someone to a position that requires a reference may have to get the employee’s help in identifying their previous employers.
If a relevant authorised person (A):(1) appoints someone (P) to a specified significant-harm function position; (2) obtains a reference from an ex-employer; and(3) later wishes to renew P’s certificate under the certification regime; it is unlikely that A will need to ask for another reference from that ex-employer or ask for it to be reissued unless there is a change in P’s role of the type described in SYSC 5.2.17G (major changes in role).
(1) If a full scope regulatory reference firm (A):(a) appoints someone (P) to a specified significant-harm function or an approved person position;(b) obtains a reference from an ex-employer (B); and(c) later wishes to: (i) appoint P to another specified significant-harm function or approved person position; or(ii) keep P in the same specified significant-harm function but make a change in P’s role of the type described in SYSC 5.2.17G (major changes in role), whether that change
If:(1) a firm (A) appoints someone (P) to a specified significant-harm function or approved person position;(2) A obtains a reference from an ex-employer (B); (3) later P transfers to a specified significant-harm function or an approved person position with a full scope regulatory reference firm in A’s group (C); (4) B’s reference is:(a) addressed to all firms in A’s group; or(b) otherwise drafted so that it is clear that C may rely on it; and(5) C does not need to ask for the
(1) Although this chapter (see SYSC 22.2.3R) only requires a full scope regulatory reference firm to try to get a reference for a person it is recruiting to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function towards the end of the application process, the FCA would normally expect a firm to have obtained the reference before the application for approval is made. (2) The main examples of circumstances in which it would be reasonable for a firm to delay getting a reference
(1) 1If a full scope regulatory reference firm (A) is considering:(a) permitting or appointing someone (P) to perform a controlled function; or(b) issuing a certificate under the certification regime for P; (as explained in more detail in rows (A) and (B) of the table in SYSC 22.2.3R), A must take reasonable steps to obtain appropriate references from: (c) P’s current employer; and(d) anyone who has been P’s employer in the past six years.(2) A must take reasonable steps to obtain
(1) A firm (B) must provide a reference to another firm (A) as soon as reasonably practicable if:(a) A is considering:(i) permitting or appointing someone (P) to perform a controlled function; or(ii) issuing a certificate under the certification regime for P; or(iii) appointing P to another position in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R; (as explained in more detail in the table in SYSC 22.2.3R);(b) A makes a request, for a reference or other information in respect of P from B, in B’s
Table: What positions need a referencePositionWhen to obtain referenceComments(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.One month before the end of the application period Where a request for a reference would require:(a) the firm requesting the reference;(b) the employer giving the reference; or(c) any other person;to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has
B does not need to update A if: (1) A is no longer a firm; (2) P has not yet been employed by A (because, for example, P is still working their notice period with B) and it is no longer intended for A to employ P;(3) A is no longer P’s employer; or(4) despite making reasonable enquiries under SYSC 22.2.4R, B does not know whether P is still employed by A.
This rule sets out time limits about the obligation to update a reference in SYSC 22.2.4R. (1) If B still employs P, SYSC 22.2.4R applies throughout the period B remains employed.(2) If B no longer employs P, the obligation to update ends six years after P ceased to be employed by B.(3) If B no longer employs P and the matters or circumstances are not serious misconduct by P, B does not have to disclose something if it did not occur or exist in the six year period ending on the
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a member of the management body4, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: article 45(8)4 of MiFID]3
(1) Members of the management body4 include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a member of the management body4.(2) A member of the
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his or her4 date of birth;(3) where applicable,4 a description of the responsibilities which he or she4 will have in the post to which he or she4 is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body;43(4) where applicable,
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
(1) Standing committees include permanent committees with executive, supervisory, policy-making or rule-making responsibilities. Committees appointed for particular tasks or committees established for purely consultative or advisory purposes would not usually be considered to be standing committees.(2) Committees which include persons who are not members of the governing body can be standing committees.
When a relevant authorised person is permitting or appointing someone to perform a controlled function whose approval is given under SUP 10A.1.15R or SUP 10A.1.16R (appointed representatives of relevant authorised persons), the requirements of this chapter for firms that are not full scope regulatory reference firms apply in place of the requirements that only apply to full scope regulatory reference firms.
If:(1) a firm (A) is thinking of employing someone (P);(2) P is employed by a group services company (D) that is not a firm; (3) P (in their capacity as an employee of D) performs a function or service for a firm (B) in the same group as D such that P is also an employee of B; and(4) A intends to appoint (P) to a position that entitles A to obtain a reference from B;then: (5) (if A is a full scope regulatory reference firm) A should ask both B and D for a reference;(6) B is obliged
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries3 and clarifies the role which actuaries3 play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries3, and the termination of their3 term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:3333(1) long-term
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R or rule 2.2(2) of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business4 to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant
Where the auditors of a UK recognised body cease to act as such, that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and the following information:1(1) whether the appointment of those auditors expired or was terminated;(2) the date on which they ceased to act; and(3) if it terminated, or decided not to renew, their appointment, its reasons for taking that action or decision.
In order to enable the compliance function to discharge its responsibilities properly and independently, 16a management company8 must ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the compliance function must have the necessary authority, resources, expertise and access to all relevant information;(2) a compliance officer must be appointed and must be responsible for the compliance function and for any reporting as to compliance required by SYSC 4.3.2 R;(3) the relevant
(1) 15This guidance is relevant to a relevant authorised person required to appoint a compliance officer under SYSC 6.1.4R or article 22(3) of the MiFID Org Regulation as applicable16.(2) Taking account of the nature, scale and complexity of its activities, the firm should have appropriate procedures to ensure that the removal or any other disciplinary sanctioning of the compliance officer does not undermine the independence of the compliance function.(3) In the FCA's view, it
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.5820
8A tied agent appointed by a MiFID investment firm to carry on investment services and activities (and ancillary services where relevant) does not have its own passporting right to establish a branch in another EEA State. However, a MiFID investment firm remains free to appoint a tied agent to do business in another EEA State and where it does so, the tied agent will benefit from its passport.9
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because:141111(a) 14they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions
(1) 1A firm must not appoint a person as its appointed representative until it has entered into a written agreement (a "multiple principal agreement") with every other principal the person may have; but this does not apply to the appointment of an introducer appointed representative nor does it require an agreement with another principal which has appointed a person as an introducer appointed representative.(2) A firm must not unreasonably decline to enter into a multiple principal
1Multiple principal agreementMatterExplanation1.Scope of appointmentThe scope of appointment given by each principal to the appointed representative.2.Complaints handlingThe identity of the principal which will be the point of contact for a complaint from a client (referred to as the "lead-principal" in SUP 12.4.5D G to SUP 12.4.5E G).An agreement that each principal will co-operate with each other principal in resolving a complaint from a client in relation to the appointed representative's
(1) 1Under the relevant provisions in COBS, ICOBS7 and MCOB, the customer will receive details of how to complain to the appointed representative and, when a product is purchased, details of the complaints procedure for the product provider, insurer or home finance provider.2772(2) Under DISP 1.2.1 R4, a firm must among other things, supply summary details of its internal process for dealing promptly and fairly with complaints4 to the customer when it receives a complaint4. In
34A product provider should ensure that the method it adopts for valuing augmentation benefits is consistent with the statements made in the documentation published about the windfall event. Relevant documentation for the purpose of valuing such benefits will include (but is not limited to):22(1) Any description of increases in benefits in any circular to policyholders (and any other public information relating to the event);(2) Any principles of financial management established
1Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 2A(1)The composition of the management body of a [UK RIE] must reflect an adequately broad range of experience.(2)The management body must possess adequate collective knowledge, skills and experience in order to understand the [UK RIE’s] activities and main risks.(3)Members of the management body must -(a)commit sufficient time to perform their functions on the management body;(b)act with honesty, integrity and independence
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 2B(1)If the [UK RIE] is significant the following requirements apply to the management body -(a)members of the management body must not at the same time hold positions exceeding more than one of the following combinations –(i)one executive directorship with two non-executive directorships (or where so authorised by the FCA under regulation 44(1) [of the MiFI Regulations], three non-executive directorships); or(ii)four
A company with, or applying for, a premium listing of its equity shares5 must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:4(1) is required to submit any of the following documents to the FCA in connection with6 an application for admission of equity shares5 to premium listing6:66(a) a prospectus, supplementary prospectus7 or equivalent document1; or6(b) a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or6(c) a summary document as required by PR 1.2.3R (8); or6(d) listing
4A company must appoint a sponsor where it applies to transfer its category of equity shares'5listing from:(1) a standard listing (shares) to a premium listing (commercial company); or5(2) a standard listing (shares) to a premium listing (investment company); or5(3) a premium listing (investment company) to a premium listing (commercial company); or(4) a premium listing (commercial company) to a premium listing (investment company).
1A UK MiFID investment firm must not appoint an EEA registered tied agent or allow such an agent to continue to act for it unless it accepts or has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as its EEA registered tied agent.[Note: paragraph 1 of article 29(2)6 of MiFID]
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FCA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
1If a listed company or applicant appoints more than one sponsor to provide a sponsor service6 then:6(1) the appointment does not relieve either of the appointed sponsors of their obligations under LR 8; and(2) the sponsors are each responsible for complying with the obligations under LR 8 .66
6If a listed company or applicant appoints more than one sponsor to provide a sponsor service, the FCA expects the sponsors to co-operate with each other in relation to the sponsor service, including by establishing arrangements for the sharing of information as appropriate having regard to the sponsor service.
(1) 1A firm may deposit safe custody assets2 held by it on behalf of its clients into an account or accounts opened with a third party, but only if it exercises all due skill, care and diligence in the selection, appointment and periodic review of the third party and of the arrangements for the holding and safekeeping of those safe custody assets.222(1A) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) When a firm makes the selection, appointment and conducts the periodic review referred to 2under
(1) 6A firm must make a record of the grounds upon which it satisfies itself as to the appropriateness of its selection and appointment of a third party under CASS 6.3.1 R. The firm must make the record on the date it makes the selection or appointment and must keep it from that date until five years after the firm ceases to use the third party to hold safe custody assets belonging to clients.(2) A firm must make a record of each periodic review of its selection and appointment