Related provisions for REC 4.2C.9
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The appropriate regulator may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the appropriate regulator requests and supply it with any information the appropriate regulator may reasonably request about the firm to enable the appropriate regulator to discharge its functions under the Act.
SUP 3.6.1 R requires a firm to cooperate with its auditor. SUP 3.6.3 G refers to the rights to information which an auditor is granted by the Act. SUP 3.6.4 G refers to similar rights granted by the Companies Act 1985 or where applicable, the Companies Act 2006,2 the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992.
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the appropriate regulator. An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
1When considering whether to cancel a sponsor's approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the sponsor; (2) the adequacy of the sponsor's systems and controls; (3) the sponsor's history of compliance with the listing rules; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected failure of the sponsor to meet (at
1When considering whether to cancel a primary information provider’s approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the primary information provider; (2) the adequacy of the primary information provider’s systems and controls; (3) the primary information provider’s history of compliance with DTR 8; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected
The obligations to make a notification pursuant to2 section 64C of the Act apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations under this section.
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
Under section 296 of the Act (FCA's4 power to give directions) and (for RAPs) under regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognised body requirements. In the case of a UK RIE (including one which operates an RAP) 3those steps may include granting the FCA4 access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents
The FCA4 is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act or regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3 if it considers that:4(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that 1one or more of the recognised body requirements is3 satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying with the direction.
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
A listed company that is not already required to comply with the obligations referred to under article 17 of the Market Abuse Regulation12 must comply with those obligations12 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules subject to article 22 of the Market Abuse Regulation12.1
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the appropriate regulator at once. The appropriate regulator may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
A person may need to ask the FCA for individual guidance on how the rules and general guidance in the Handbook, the Act or other regulatory requirements apply in their particular circumstances. This chapter describes how a person may do this. Section 139A of the Act gives the FCA the power to give guidance consisting of such information and advice as it considers appropriate.
In determining whether a firm has complied with:5(1) any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule; or5(2) any provision in Part 3 of the MCD Order; or5(3) any qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purpose of section 39(4) of the Act by the Treasury by order,5anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having