Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13
1 - 20 of 242 items.
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
Under section 31 of the Act, a Treaty firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights), that is:(1) the Treaty firm is seeking to carry on a regulated activity; and(2) the conditions set out in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act are satisfied.
On qualifying for authorisation a Treaty firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity which is a regulated activity. This permission will be treated on the same terms as those which apply to the Treaty firm'sHome State authorisation. For example, it will reflect any limitations or requirements which are included in the firm'sHome State authorisation.
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Simplified summary of the territorial scope of the regulated mortgage activities, to be read in conjunction with the rest of this section.This table belongs to PERG 4.11.8 G4Regulated activities other than adviceLocation of establishment of service provider:Location of land:Individual borrower resident and located:UK or non-UKperson: Establishment in the UKin the UKin another EEA Stateoutside the EEAland in the UKYesYesYesland in another EEA StateYesYesYesUKperson: Establishment
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5D) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas lender to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because of:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) the general principle and practice that contracts relating to land are usually governed
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5E) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas administrator to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract means that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) when administrators notify borrowers resident in the United Kingdom or the other
Compliance reports from trustees of AUTs, and7depositaries of ICVCs and ACSs7(see SUP 16.6.6R)6Report Frequency Due dateReport from a trustee of an AUT on manager's failures as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (1)Quarterly 1 month after quarter end (Note)66Report from adepositaryof anACSon failures by theauthorised contractual scheme manageras set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (2A)Quarterly1 month after quarter end (Note)Report from a depositary of an ICVC on failures by the authorised corporate
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA2 when acting as such.2(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA2 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.2(3) [deleted]22
2As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
(1) Unless (2), (3)10 or (4)23 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.23(2) 15The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to:(a) become a recognised body or a designated professional body; or15(b) be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies.15(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission which is not an application
Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA3231Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees3131(1) Fee payer(2) Fee payable (£)37Due date(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26(1) Unless (2) or (3) 59applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year22 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.22(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
(1) [deleted]17232312112323111123(1A) [deleted] 1723(1B) [deleted] 1723(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
(1) If:(a) a firm makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15 D (3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5 D (Cancellation of permission), or applies to vary (by reducing its scope) or cancel its authorisation or registration (regulation 8 and 10(1) of the Payment Services Regulations including as applied by regulation 14 of the Payment Services Regulations) or applies to cancel its authorisation or registration
Where a firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission, or its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations7or the Electronic Money Regulations, 10 or its registration as a CBTL firm under article 13(c) the MCD Order, 16or the FCA17 has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm's7Part 4A permission or the FCA17 has exercised its powers under regulation 10 (Cancellation of authorisation), including as applied by regulation 14 (Supplementary
A firm authorised under Part 4A5 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission5 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission5 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):5555335(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) gives notice of that fact to the appropriate UK regulator7;7the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.
The exclusion will be of assistance to introducers who would otherwise be carrying on the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments (assuming, as mentioned in PERG 5.6.8 G, that they provide information only to policyholders or potential policyholders, and not to the intermediary or insurance undertaking to whom they introduce these policyholders or potential policyholders). In order to assist such introducers determine whether or not
Market makers in traded endowment policies may be able to rely on this exclusion to avoid the need to be authorised. They must ensure, however, that where they are carrying on the regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal (article 14) they are also able to rely on the exclusions in articles 15 or 16 (see the guidance in PERG 2.8.4 G (Dealing in investments as principal)).
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
Application of article 33 to arrangements for making introductions. This table belongs to PERG 5.6.20 G.Type of introductionApplicability of exclusion1Introductions are purely for the purpose of the provision of independent advice – Introducer is completely indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given.Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2).2Introduction is one-off or otherwise not part of pre-existing ongoing
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm15 which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation8 and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act. The chapter does not apply to an EEA firm that is a Solvency II firm or to Gibraltar firms treated as such Solvency II firms. Solvency II firms and such Gibraltar firms should consult the relevant
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) [deleted]151313(aa) [deleted]1313(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the9CRD; or;494(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under MiFID; or1010(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive; or1210(f) authorised in Gibraltar under AIFMD.12(g) authorised in Gibraltar
Types of activity – are they regulated activities and, if so, why?Type of activityIs it a regulated activity?RationaleMARKETING AND EFFECTING INTRODUCTIONSPassive display of information -for example, medical insurance brochures in doctor’s surgery (whether or not remuneration is received for this activity)No.Merely displaying information does not constitute making arrangements under article 25(2) (see PERG 5.6.4 G).Recommending a broker/insurance undertaking and providing customer
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
In the FCA's view, the following exclusions are likely, in many cases, to exclude the normal activities of professional firms from amounting to regulated mortgage activities:(1) article 67 of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business), which applies in relation to the advising and arranging activities (see PERG 4.10.1 G);(2) article 66 of the Regulated Activities Order (Trustees, nominees and personal representatives)
In addition, a professional firm may, in certain circumstances, be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains general guidance on the Part XX exemption. In particular, PROF 2.1.9 G explains that the Treasury have specified certain regulated activities to which the Part XX exemption cannot apply in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Professions) (Non-Exempt Activities Order 2001 ("the Non-Exempt
Arranging (bringing about) a regulated mortgage contract and making arrangements with a view to a regulated mortgage contract have not been specified in the Non-Exempt Activities Order. Accordingly, a professional firm may carry on these regulated activities without authorisation, provided the other conditions of the Part XX exemption are complied with.
Advising on regulated mortgage contracts has been specified in the Non-Exempt Activities Order. However, a professional firm is prevented from using the Part XX exemption to advise on regulated mortgage contracts only if the advice it gives consists of a recommendation. This will be the case if the recommendation is made to an individual to enter into a regulated mortgage contract with a lender who would, in entering into the contract, carry on the regulated activity of entering
In most cases, any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or an exempt person. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Introduction) contains further guidance on these consequences.2
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United KingdomNeeds Part 4A permissionSchedule 3 EEA passport rights availableOverseas persons exclusion availableRegistered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)NoYesNoRegistered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border servicesNoYesPotentially available [see Note]Third country
Non-UK-based persons wishing to carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom must:(1) qualify for authorisation by exercising passport rights (see section 31 (Authorised persons) and schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) to the Act and PERG 5.12.13 G to PERG 5.12.14 G (Passporting)); or(2) make use of the overseas persons exclusion (which then has the effect that activities are deemed not to be regulated activities carried on in the United Kingdom); or(3) seek Part
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United
The government's intention behind the regulatory regime for mortgages was "to ensure that, at any one time, it would be possible for each mortgage to be linked to one and only one authorised firm (with mortgage permission) to have the ongoing regulatory responsibility towards consumers" (HM Treasury, Regulating Mortgages, February 2002, paragraph 47). In other words, it should be possible to arrange a securitisation transaction so that the SPV and other third parties do not carry
A SPV does not carry on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (or agreeing to do so), merely by acquiring the legal or beneficial interest in the contract from the original lender, or by providing funding to the original lender. If the contract is subsequently varied, a SPV should take care to avoid the original contract being replaced with a new regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.4.4 G). The original lender is, of course, likely to require
If an unauthorised SPV arranges for an authorised person with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, it can avoid carrying on the regulated activities of:(1) administering a regulated mortgage contract, because of the exclusion in article 62 of the Regulated Activities Order (described in PERG 4.8.4 G);(2) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts, because any arrangements
An EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)31should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
The activities of effecting a contract of insurance or carrying out a contract of insurance are separate regulated activities, each requiring authorisation. But this only applies where they are carried on by a person who is acting as principal. This means that the activities of agents, such as loss adjusters, will not constitute this regulated activity. The activities of some agents may, however, be regulated as insurance mediation activities (see PERG 5 (Guidance on insurance
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
11A person may fall into both the first and the second category. For example, a person might be both exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i) (within the first category) and be a group entity of an operator (within the second category). In this case, that person does not require permission for activities that cause that person to fall into the second category because those activities are excluded from the activity of bidding in emissions auctions.
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
(1) 15Furnishing of persons with information relevant to the financial standing of individuals is a regulated activity if the person has collected the information for that purpose.(2) A person requires authorisation for this activity only if its business primarily consists of the activities in (1). (3) This activity does not include an activity in so far as it is operating an electronic system in relation to lending.
Agreeing to carry on most regulated activities is itself a regulated activity. But this is not the case if the underlying activities to which the agreement relates are those of accepting deposits, issuing electronic money,10effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, operating a multilateral trading facility, managing dormant account funds, the meeting of repayment claims75, managing a UCITS, acting as depositary or trustee of a UCITS, managing an AIF, acting as trustee