Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B
1 - 20 of 194 items.
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator7 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:77(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.77
7The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
The appropriate regulator7 will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.76
The appropriate regulator7 will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The appropriate regulator7 will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the appropriate regulator7 in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3777
In some cases, the appropriate regulator7 may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The appropriate regulator7 may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.77
If the appropriate regulator7 believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.7
Under section 138A(1) of the Act the appropriate regulator7 may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the appropriate regulator7 in exceptional circumstances where the appropriate regulator7 considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the appropriate regulator7 will inform the firms concerned that the waiver
For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 138D7 of the Act, the appropriate regulator7 would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.277
PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 provides that a derivative, quasi-derivative or stock lending transaction will only be an admissible asset if it is approved. This section sets out the criteria for determining when a derivative, quasi-derivative or stock lending transaction is approved for this purpose. INSPRU 3.2.5 R to INSPRU 3.2.35 R set out the criteria for derivatives and quasi-derivatives. INSPRU 3.2.36 R to INSPRU 3.2.41 R set
For the purpose of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 (Admissible assets in insurance), and also in relation to permitted links,1 a derivative or quasi-derivative is approved if:(1) it is held for the purpose of efficient portfolio management (INSPRU 3.2.6 R to INSPRU 3.2.7 R) or reduction of investment risk (INSPRU 3.2.8 R to INSPRU 3.2.13 G);(2) it is covered (INSPRU 3.2.14 R to INSPRU 3.2.33 G); and(3) it is effected or issued:(a)
(1) PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.36 requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 13.16. If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved
For the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.8 R, investment risk is the risk that the assets held by a firm:(1) (where they are admissible assets held by the firm to cover its technical provisions) might not be:(a) of a value at least equal to the amount of those technical provisions as required by PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Technical Provisions, 46; or(b) of appropriate safety, yield and marketability as required by PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance
An obligation to pay a monetary amount (whether or not falling in INSPRU 3.2.16 R) is covered if:(1) the firm holds admissible assets or permitted links1 that are sufficient in value so that the firm reasonably believes that following reasonably foreseeable adverse variations (relying solely on cashflows from, or from realising, those assets) it could pay the monetary amount in the right currency when it falls due; or(2) the obligation to pay the monetary amount is offset by a
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is on approved terms only if the firm reasonably believes that it could, in all reasonably foreseeable circumstances and under normal market conditions, readily enter into a further transaction with the counterparty or a third party to close out the derivative or quasi-derivative at a price not less than the value attributed to it by the firm, taking into account any valuation adjustments or reserves established
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is capable of valuation only if the firm:(1) is able to value it with reasonable accuracy on a reliable basis in compliance with PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation, 3.16; and(2) reasonably believes that it will be able to do so throughout the life of the transaction.
The purpose of INSPRU 3.2.34 R and INSPRU 3.2.35 R is to ensure the appropriate application of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation,6 to derivatives and quasi-derivatives effected or issued off-market with an approved counterparty.
(1) For the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Capital Resources 136 (Admissible assets in insurance), a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) 3is approved if:(a) the assets lent are admissible assets;(b) , the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised,
For the purposes of assessing adequate quality in INSPRU 3.2.38R (3), reference should be made to the criteria for credit risk loss mitigation set out in INSPRU 2.1.16 R. The valuation rules in PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Overall Resources and Valuation6 apply for the purpose of determining the value of both collateral received, and the securities transferred, by the firm. In addition, where collateral takes the form of assets transferred, under the
The appropriate regulator3 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)3 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator3 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.333
3The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)3, the appropriate regulator3 is required by section 138B(3)3 of the Act:333(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D3 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;3(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's3 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D3 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.33
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator3 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator3 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator3 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator3proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator3 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the appropriate regulator3 proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.3
(1) Section 60(2A) of the Act (Applications for approval) says that, if a firm is applying for approval from the FCA or the PRA for a person to perform a designated senior management function, the regulator to which the application is being made must require the application to contain, or be accompanied by, a statement setting out the aspects of the affairs of the firm which it is intended that the person will be responsible for managing in performing the function. (2) That statement
(1) This section is about the FCA's requirements for statements of responsibilities.(2) However, where applications and notifications relate both to FCA-designated senior management functions and to PRA ones, the regulators’ requirements are consistent with each other.(3) The general material in this section (SUP 10C.11.13D5 to SUP 10C.11.35G) applies to statements of responsibilities submitted in all the cases covered by this section. It covers statements of responsibilities
(1) This paragraph sets out non-exhaustive examples of potential changes which, in the FCA's view, may be significant and thus require the submission of a revised statement of responsibilities.(2) A variation of the FCA-approved SMF manager's approval, either at the firm's request or at the FCA's or PRA's initiative, resulting in the imposition, variation or removal of a condition or time limit, may involve a significant change.(3) Fulfilling or failing to fulfil a condition on
(1) SUP 10C.11.13D means that, at any time, a firm should have a single document for an FCA-approved SMF manager5 that:(a) contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which that SMF manager has approval; and(b) where relevant, contains statements of responsibilities for all designated senior management functions for which the firm is applying for approval.(2) The document in (1) should cover PRA-designated senior management functions
Table: Examples5 of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work1ExampleComments(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5 and the money laundering reporting function5.There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions.The combined document should be included with the application for approval.(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function5.
(1) A complete set of current statement of responsibilities means all statements of responsibilities that the firm has provided to the FCA or PRA as revised under section 62A of the Act and this chapter5.(2) A statement of responsibilities is not current if the person in question no longer performs any of the controlled functions5 to which it relates.
(1) A statement of responsibilities (including its attachment sheet for additional information) should:(a) be complete by itself;(b) not refer to documents not forming part of it; and(c) only contain material about the matters that this chapter, the corresponding PRA requirements and the Act say should be included in it.(2) For example, if it is necessary to include relevant material from the firm's report and accounts, the statement of responsibilities should not attach the whole
(1) SYSC or another part of the regulatory system will generally impose requirements (referred to as ‘prescribed requirements’ in this paragraph) that relate to a particular post or set of responsibilities. (2) For instance, these include:(a) the responsibilities that go with the FCA required functions; and(b) the FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities and5PRA-prescribed senior management responsibilities5.2(3) The allocation of responsibilities under a statement of
(1) A statement of responsibilities of an SMF manager should include details about any:(a) FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities and5PRA-prescribed senior management responsibilities5allocated to the SMF manager; 2(b) functions that are included in a PRA controlled function under the arrangements described in5SUP 10C.9 (Minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime); 5(c) responsibility for a function allocated to the SMF manager under SYSC 26 (Senior managers
(1) Where:(a) an FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility is divided or shared between several SMF managers5; or(b) any function allocated under SYSC 26 (Senior managers and certification regime: Overall and local responsibility) is shared between several SMF managers (if that chapter applies to the firm)5;25the statement of responsibilities for each SMF manager should:(c) explain why this has been done; and(d) give full details of the arrangements, including the names
If a person's job for a firm involves performing: (1) an FCA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10C.9 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual a
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
(1) SUP 10C.9.8R applies when a firm is seeking approval from the PRA for a candidate to perform a PRA controlled function and the intention is that the candidate will also perform what would otherwise be an FCA governing function once the PRA gives its approval. SUP 10C.9.8R works by disapplying that FCA governing function.(2) Where (1) applies, the activities within that FCA governing function are included in the PRA controlled function for which the person has approval. Chapter
A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been
Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced1ExampleWhether FCA approval requiredWhether PRA approval requiredComments(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.No. A4 is not treated as performing the executive director function.4YesChief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function.
A firm authorised under Part 4A5 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission5 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission5 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):5555335(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G55QuestionVariation of Part 4A permissionCancellation of Part 4A permission Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirementsWhat does the application apply to?Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any
(1) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.1R]66(2) [deleted]66(3) [deleted]6(4) [deleted]66(5) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(1)]6(6) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.3R(2)]66(7) [deleted] Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 24.2.4R]6
(1) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(1)]5(2) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(2)]5(3) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.2R(3)]5(4) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.3.3R]5(5) [deleted]5(6) [deleted] [Editor’s note: The text of this provision has been moved to SYSC 26.4.3R]5(7) [deleted
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
8Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is responsible for assessing their financial resources. Paragraphs 4D and 5D of Schedule 6 to the Act contain the threshold conditions relating to financial resources which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity (in addition to additional non-financial resources threshold
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Although8 it is the firm that is being assessed, the FCA8 may take into consideration the impact of other members of the firm's group on the adequacy of its resources8, where relevant to the discharge of the FCA's functions8. For example, in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, the FCA8 may assess the consolidated solvency of the group. The FCA's8 approach to the consolidated supervision of such
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
(1) Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing function.532(2) [deleted]5332(3) [deleted]5332
An actuary appointed under firms PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.225
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
An actuary appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay if he:2255(1) is removed from office by a firm; or(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or(3) is not reappointed by a firm.
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
24Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission24 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:24(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer of a person performing a controlled function22), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application
Information which may be required. See SUP 6.3.24 GType of businessInformation which may be requiredAll 1. Details of how the firm plans to comply with the relevant regulator's24 regulatory requirements relating to any additional regulated activities it is seeking to carry on.242. Descriptions of the firm's key controls, senior management arrangements and audit and proposed compliance arrangements in respect of any new regulated activity (see SYSC). 3. Organisation charts and
24Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
24The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
24Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2424(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission24 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or24(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission24 for a period
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include a person not directly involved in establishing
2Section 395 of the Act also requires the FCA to publish a statement of its procedure for decisions which give3 rise to an obligation for the PRA to include a statement under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where the FCA proposes to refuse consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act, or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5), 55I(8) or
2Where an application for Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the permission is for certain regulated activities only.
2Where an application to vary a Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations, or the PRA specifying the permission
2Where an application to perform a controlled function is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator, the PRA can only approve a person to perform a controlled function with the consent of the FCA (section 59(4)(b) of the Act). Where the application is a relevant senior management application, the FCA’s consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing conditions, or the PRA giving approval only for a limited period.3
(1) 1APER does not apply to FCA-approved persons of SMCR firms3. COCON applies instead. 3222(2) However, APER applies to approved persons approved to perform a controlled function under SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed representatives3) even if the appointed representative'sprincipal is an SMCR firm3.
(1) 1APER applies to the performance by an approved person of FCA controlled functions in SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons) (whether or not approval has been sought and granted).3(2) APER also applies to the performance by an approved person of any other functions in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by their authorised approved person employer.3(3) Subject to (4), APER does not apply to conduct to which COCON applies.3(4) APER applies to conduct to which COCON
APER 1.1A.7 G gives examples of the effect of APER 1.1A.1R and APER 1.1A.2R1. The first column says whether the example involves an FCA-approved person in relation to one or two firms3. The second3 column explains what functions APER covers in the scenario set out in the first column3.
Table: Examples of what activities APER3 coversFCA approvedCoverage of APER3(1) Yes, in relation to firm AApplies to the FCA controlled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function.3(2) Yes, in relation to firm A. No, in relation to firm B,In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (1). However, APER does not apply to any function that
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
15Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing suitability under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4E and 5E of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the suitability threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (in relation to an FCA-approved person, 16see SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons), SUP 10C (FCA senior managers regime for approved persons in SMCR firms)18 and FIT). In certain
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
(1) A reference in the Handbook to another provision in the Handbook is a reference to that provision as amended from time to time.13(2) Unless a contrary intention appears, a reference in the Handbook to a provision in the PRA Rulebook is a reference to that provision as amended from time to time.13
22Unless a contrary intention appears, to the extent that a provision made by the FCA15 ('the referring provision') contains a cross-reference to another provision that is not made by the FCA including a provision formerly made by the PRA which the PRA has now deleted15 ('the referred provision'), the referred provision as amended from time to time (excepting deletion in its entirety)15 is to be treated as having15 been made by the FCA15 to the extent necessary to make the referring
(1) This rule applies to Handbook provisions20 where the PRA have made commensurate provisions in the PRA Rulebook. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRA approved persons20.2216151615(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's20 powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied20 to the extent of the FCA’s20 powers and regulatory responsibilities only.(3) The extent of a Handbook provision
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69:8(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
The PRA Rulebook requires9firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA2 when acting as such.2(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA2 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.2(3) [deleted]22
2As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.