Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

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SUP 8.3.1GRP
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator7 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:77(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.77
SUP 8.3.1AGRP
Even if the conditions in section 138A(4)7 of the Act are satisfied, the appropriate regulator7will consider other relevant factors before giving a waiver, such as whether the waiver would be compatible with European law, including relevant EC Directives.277
SUP 8.3.2GRP
The appropriate regulator7 is required by section 138B7 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so (see SUP 8.6).77
SUP 8.3.2AGRP
7The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
SUP 8.3.3AGRP
(1) 57The appropriate regulator's preferred method of submission for waiver applications is by e-mail.75(2) The form is available on the appropriate regulator's website.7557
SUP 8.3.4AGRP
7Firms or persons other than PRA-authorised persons should send applications for waivers or applications for variations of waivers to the FCA.
SUP 8.3.4BGRP
7PRA-authorised persons should send applications for waivers or applications for variations of waivers to: (1) the FCA in respect of rules in the FCA Handbook applicable to that PRA-authorised person; and(2) the PRA in respect of rules in the PRA Handbook.
SUP 8.3.5GRP
The appropriate regulator7 will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.76
SUP 8.3.5AGRP
The appropriate regulator7 will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The appropriate regulator7 will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the appropriate regulator7 in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3777
SUP 8.3.6GRP
In some cases, the appropriate regulator7 may give a modification of a rule rather than direct that the rule is not to apply. The appropriate regulator7 may also impose conditions on a waiver, for example additional reporting requirements. A waiver may be given for a specified period of time only, after which time it will cease to apply. A firm wishing to extend the duration of a waiver should follow the procedure in SUP 8.3.3 D. A waiver will not apply retrospectively.77
SUP 8.3.7GRP
If the appropriate regulator7 decides not to give a waiver, it will give reasons for the decision.7
SUP 8.3.8GRP
A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the waiver. In doing so, a firm should give the appropriate regulator7 its reasons for withdrawing the application.7
SUP 8.3.9GRP
If the appropriate regulator7 believes that a particular waiver given to a firm may have relevance to other firms, it may publish general details about the possible availability of the waiver. For example, IPRU(INV) 3-80(10)G explains that a firm that wishes to use its own internal model to calculate its position risk requirement (PRR) will need to apply for a waiver of the relevant rules.7
SUP 8.3.10GRP
Under section 138A(1) of the Act the appropriate regulator7 may give a waiver with the consent of a firm. This power may be used by the appropriate regulator7 in exceptional circumstances where the appropriate regulator7 considers that a waiver should apply to a number of firms (for example, where a rule unmodified may not meet the particular circumstances of a particular category of firm). In such cases the appropriate regulator7 will inform the firms concerned that the waiver
SUP 8.3.13GRP
For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 138D7 of the Act, the appropriate regulator7 would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.277
INSPRU 3.2.4GRP
GENPRU 2.2.17 R requires a firm to calculate its capital resources for the purpose of GENPRU in accordance with the capital resources table, subject to the limits in GENPRU 2.2.32 R to GENPRU 2.2.41 R. The capital resources table and GENPRU 2.2.251 R require a firm to deduct from total capital resources the value of any asset included in an insurance fund which is not an admissible asset as listed in GENPRU 2 Annex 7. GENPRU 2 Annex 7 provides that a derivative, quasi-derivative
INSPRU 3.2.5RRP
For the purpose of GENPRU 2 Annex 7 (Admissible assets in insurance), and also in relation to permitted links,1 a derivative or quasi-derivative is approved if:(1) it is held for the purpose of efficient portfolio management (INSPRU 3.2.6 R to INSPRU 3.2.7 R) or reduction of investment risk (INSPRU 3.2.8 R to INSPRU 3.2.13 G);(2) it is covered (INSPRU 3.2.14 R to INSPRU 3.2.33 G); and(3) it is effected or issued:(a) on or under the rules of a regulated market; or(b) off-market
INSPRU 3.2.5AGRP
(1) 3GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (3) requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (1). If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved under INSPRU 3.2.5 R. Firms should be able to justify whether or not their assets are derivatives or quasi-derivatives.(2)
INSPRU 3.2.12RRP
For the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.8 R, investment risk is the risk that the assets held by a firm:(1) (where they are admissible assets held by the firm to cover its technical provisions) might not be:(a) of a value at least equal to the amount of those technical provisions as required by INSPRU 1.1.20 R; or(b) of appropriate safety, yield and marketability as required by INSPRU 1.1.34R (1)(a); or(c) of an appropriate currency match as required by INSPRU 3.1.53 R;(2) (where they
INSPRU 3.2.17RRP
An obligation to pay a monetary amount (whether or not falling in INSPRU 3.2.16 R) is covered if:(1) the firm holds admissible assets or permitted links1 that are sufficient in value so that the firm reasonably believes that following reasonably foreseeable adverse variations (relying solely on cashflows from, or from realising, those assets) it could pay the monetary amount in the right currency when it falls due; or(2) the obligation to pay the monetary amount is offset by a
INSPRU 3.2.34RRP
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is on approved terms only if the firm reasonably believes that it could, in all reasonably foreseeable circumstances and under normal market conditions, readily enter into a further transaction with the counterparty or a third party to close out the derivative or quasi-derivative at a price not less than the value attributed to it by the firm, taking into account any valuation adjustments or reserves established
INSPRU 3.2.35RRP
For the purpose of INSPRU 3.2.5R (3)(b), a derivative or quasi-derivative is capable of valuation only if the firm:(1) is able to value it with reasonable accuracy on a reliable basis in compliance with GENPRU 1.3.4 R; and(2) reasonably believes that it will be able to do so throughout the life of the transaction.
INSPRU 3.2.35AGRP
The purpose of INSPRU 3.2.34 R and INSPRU 3.2.35 R is to ensure the appropriate application of GENPRU 1.3 to derivatives and quasi-derivatives effected or issued off-market with an approved counterparty.
INSPRU 3.2.36RRP
(1) For the purposes of GENPRU 2 Annex 7 (Admissible assets in insurance), a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) 3is approved if:(a) the assets lent are admissible assets;(b) , the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with
INSPRU 3.2.39GRP
For the purposes of assessing adequate quality in INSPRU 3.2.38R (3), reference should be made to the criteria for credit risk loss mitigation set out in INSPRU 2.1.16 R. The valuation rules in GENPRU 1.3 apply for the purpose of determining the value of both collateral received, and the securities transferred, by the firm. In addition, where collateral takes the form of assets transferred, under the rules in GENPRU any such asset that is not an admissible asset (see GENPRU 2
SUP 8.6.1GRP
The appropriate regulator3 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)3 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator3 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.333
SUP 8.6.1AGRP
3The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
SUP 8.6.2GRP
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)3, the appropriate regulator3 is required by section 138B(3)3 of the Act:333(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D3 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;3(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
SUP 8.6.3GRP
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's3 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D3 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.33
SUP 8.6.5GRP
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator3 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator3 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
SUP 8.6.6GRP
The appropriate regulator3 may consider publication unnecessary where, for example, the waiver relates to a minor matter that does not affect any third party and is unlikely to be of relevance or interest to other firms.3
SUP 8.6.7GRP
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator3 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator3proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator3 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
SUP 8.6.8GRP
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the appropriate regulator3 proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.3
SUP 8.6.9GRP
The principal means of publication of waiver information will be the appropriate regulator's3 website.33
COND 2.4.1BGRP
8Paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate resources threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1DGRP
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.4.1EGRP
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.4.1GGRP
8Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is responsible for assessing their financial resources. Paragraphs 4D and 5D of Schedule 6 to the Act contain the threshold conditions relating to financial resources which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity (in addition to additional non-financial resources threshold
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
COND 2.4.3GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) Although8 it is the firm that is being assessed, the FCA8 may take into consideration the impact of other members of the firm's group on the adequacy of its resources8, where relevant to the discharge of the FCA's functions8. For example, in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, the FCA8 may assess the consolidated solvency of the group. The FCA's8 approach to the consolidated supervision of such
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part 4A5 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission5 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission5 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):5555335(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
SUP 6.2.3AGRP
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
SUP 6.2.3BGRP
5If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
SUP 6.2.4AGRP
1If a firm intends to transfer its business to a different legal entity it will need to apply to the relevant regulator5 for cancellation of its Part 4A permission5 and the entity to which the business is to be transferred will need to apply for a Part 4A permission.55555
SUP 6.2.5GRP
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G55QuestionVariation of Part 4A permissionCancellation of Part 4A permission Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirementsWhat does the application apply to?Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any
SUP 6.2.10AGRP
5In certain circumstances the FCA and/or the PRA may use their own-initiative powers (see SUP 7 and EG 8) (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
SUP 6.2.14GRP
A firm making an application in accordance with SUP 65 which requires any approval from the Society of Lloyd's should apply to the Society for this at the same time as applying to the relevant regulator.5 See SUP 6 Annex 4 for additional procedures.55
SUP 10A.6.1GRP
Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing functions. However, if the firm is a PRA-authorised person,
SUP 10A.6.11GRP
The director function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.15GRP
The non-executive director function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.22GRP
The chief executive function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.28GRP
The partner function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.30GRP
The director of unincorporated association function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.34GRP
In practice, the FCA expects that most non-directive friendly societies will be PRA-authorised persons. Where that is the case, the small friendly society function will not apply. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.11.1GRP
SUP 10A.11 deals with how the FCA'sapproved persons regime applies to PRA-authorised persons. SUP 10A.11 therefore only applies if the firm in question is a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10A.11.2GRP
Both the FCA and the PRA may specify a function as a controlled function in relation to a PRA-authorised person. However, only the FCA has power to specify a customer-dealing function as a controlled function.
SUP 10A.11.3GRP
Therefore, if a person's job for a firm involves:(1) an FCA controlled function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA controlled function and a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10A.11 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual approval).
SUP 10A.11.4GRP
The PRA cannot give its approval for the performance of a PRA controlled function without the consent of the FCA. The firm does not need to apply to the FCA for that consent. The PRA must as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt or withdrawal of an application to the PRA.
SUP 10A.11.5GRP
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions) the FCA may arrange with the PRA that in agreed cases the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.
SUP 10A.11.6GRP
The FCA and PRA have coordinated their approved persons regime to reduce the amount of overlap. These arrangements relate to significant-influence functions only.
SUP 10A.11.8GRP
SUP 10A.11 disapplies the apportionment and oversight function for a person who is the subject of an application for approval to perform a PRA governing function, subject to certain conditions set out in SUP 10A.11.11 R. Where this is the case the apportionment and oversight function is included in the PRA governing function for which the person has approval. SUP 10B.7 of the PRA'sHandbook deals with this.
SUP 4.5.1RRP
An actuary2 appointed under this chapter2 or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms sector5 must be objective in performing his duties.2
SUP 4.5.3RRP
An actuary appointed under this chapter2 or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms5 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.2
SUP 4.5.7GRP
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate
SUP 4.5.8GRP
SUP 4.5.9 R to SUP 4.5.11 G apply to a person who is or has been an actuary appointed under this chapter2 or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms5.2
SUP 4.5.9RRP
An actuary appointed under this chapter2 or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms5 must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay if he:25(1) is removed from office by a firm; or(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or(3) is not reappointed by a firm.
SUP 4.5.10RRP
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2 or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms5, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:2225(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
SUP 4.5.13RRP
2When carrying out his duties, an actuary appointed under this chapter or the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms5 must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice.3
SUP 6.3.1AGRP
24Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
24Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.8GRP
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission24 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:24(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application); see2424SUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5 G; (b)
SUP 6.3.25GRP
Information which may be required. See SUP 6.3.24 GType of businessInformation which may be requiredAll 1. Details of how the firm plans to comply with the relevant regulator's24 regulatory requirements relating to any additional regulated activities it is seeking to carry on.242. Descriptions of the firm's key controls, senior management arrangements and audit and proposed compliance arrangements in respect of any new regulated activity (see SYSC). 3. Organisation charts and
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
24Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
24The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
24If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
24Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
24Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2424(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission24 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or24(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission24 for a period
COND 2.5.1BGRP
15Paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not consist of or include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1DGRP
15Paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the suitability threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.5.1EGRP
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
COND 2.5.1FGRP
15Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing suitability under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4E and 5E of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the suitability threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not
COND 2.5.3GRP
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FCA15 may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective
COND 2.5.6GRP
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
DEPP 1.2.1GRP
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include a person not directly involved in establishing
DEPP 1.2.4AGRP
2Section 395 of the Act also requires the FCA to publish a statement of its procedure for decisions which gives rise to an obligation for the PRA to include a statement under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where the FCA proposes to refuse consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act, or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5) or 55I(8),
DEPP 1.2.4BGRP
2Where an application for Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the permission is for certain regulated activities only.
DEPP 1.2.4CGRP
2Where an application to vary a Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations, or the PRA specifying the permission
DEPP 1.2.4DGRP
2Where an application to perform a controlled function is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator, the PRA can only approve a person to perform a controlled function with the consent of the FCA (section 59(4)(b) of the Act).
SUP 10A.17.2GRP
If the firm or its advisers have further questions, they should contact the FCA's Contact Centre (see SUP 10A.12.6 G).
GEN 2.2.13RRP
(1) A reference in the Handbook to another provision in the Handbook is a reference to that provision as amended from time to time.13(2) Unless a contrary intention appears, a reference in the Handbook to a provision in the PRA Rulebook is a reference to that provision as amended from time to time.13
GEN 2.2.13ARRP
22Unless a contrary intention appears, to the extent that a provision made by the FCA15 ('the referring provision') contains a cross-reference to another provision that is not made by the FCA including a provision formerly made by the PRA which the PRA has now deleted15 ('the referred provision'), the referred provision as amended from time to time (excepting deletion in its entirety)15 is to be treated as having15 been made by the FCA15 to the extent necessary to make the referring
GEN 2.2.13BGRP
15The purpose of GEN 2.2.13AR is to ensure that cross references in the FCA Handbook to provisions outside the FCA Handbook are effective, including cross references to material that was formerly in the PRA Handbook but which the PRA has now deleted.
GEN 2.2.23RRP
(1) 22This rule applies to Handbook provisions made by both the FCA and the PRA, and to Handbook provisions made by the FCA and formerly also made by the PRA15. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRAapproved persons15.(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's or PRA's powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied by that regulator to the extent of that regulator's powers and regulatory
GEN 2.2.24GRP
22The published Memorandum of Understanding between the FCA and the PRA describes their regulatory responsibilities.
GEN 2.2.25GRP
22Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The appropriate regulator is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section1 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the appropriate regulator's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.1
SUP 4.3.9RRP
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under SUP 4.3.1 R1, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:1(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R1 or rule 6.1 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, or in accordance with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Actuaries,8 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 11010
SUP 4.3.12ARRP
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R or rule 6.1 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, or in accordance with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Actuaries8:(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform
SUP 4.3.13RRP
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
SUP 4.3.14GRP
IPRU(INS) 9.4R and IPRU(FSOC) 5.1R require firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary'
APER 1.1A.1PRP
APER applies to FCA-approved persons and PRA-approved persons.
APER 1.1A.2PRP
(1) APER applies to the performance by an approved person of:(a) FCAcontrolled functions (whether or not approval has been sought and granted); and(b) PRAcontrolled functions (whether or not approval has been sought and granted);in relation to the authorised persons in relation to which that person is an approved person.(2) APER also applies to the performance by an approved person of any other functions in relation to the carrying on of a regulated activity by the authorised
APER 1.1A.6GRP
APER 1.1A.7 G gives examples of the effect of APER 1.1A.1 P and APER 1.1A.2 P. The first column says whether the example involves an FCA-approved person and the second column says whether the example involves a PRA-approved person. So for example if there is a "Yes" in both columns that means that the example concerns a person who has been approved both by the FCA and by the PRA. The third column explains what functions APER covers in the scenario set out in the first two columns.
APER 1.1A.7GRP
Table: Examples of what activities APER coversFCA approvedPRA approvedCoverage of APERFCA-authorised person(1) Yes, in relation to firm ANot applicableApplies to the FCAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function.(2) Yes, in relation to firm A. No, in relation to firm B,Not applicableIn relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario
GEN 4.5.3ARRP
2A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the PRA in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.
GEN 4.5.4ARRP
2A firm must not indicate or imply that it is regulated or otherwise supervised by the PRA in respect of business for which it is not regulated by the PRA.
GEN 4.5.6GRP
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA2 when acting as such.2(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA2 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.2(3) [deleted]22
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
2As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
SUP 8.8.1GRP
The appropriate regulator1 may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the appropriate regulator1 will consider whether the conditions in section 138A(4)1 of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate.1111
SUP 8.8.2GRP
If the appropriate regulator1 proposes to revoke a waiver, or revokes a waiver with immediate effect, it will:1(1) give the firm written notice either of its proposal, or of its action, giving reasons;(2) state in the notice a reasonable period (usually 28 days) within which the firm can make representations about the proposal or action; if a firm wants to make oral representations, it should inform the appropriate regulator1 as quickly as possible , specify who will make the
SUP 8.8.3GRP
If the waiver that has been revoked has previously been published, the appropriate regulator1 will publish the revocation unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so, having regard to any representations made by the firm.1
SYSC 2.2.1ARRP
1SYSC 2.2.1R does not apply to a firm to whom PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Insurance – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2 applies.
SYSC 2.2.4RRP
(1) 1A Solvency II firm must have, and maintain, a governance map which satisfies the following conditions:(a) it complies with PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Insurance – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2, as if those rules had been made by the FCA; (b) it includes details relating to all persons carrying out a significant influence function within the firm not already included under (a);(c) the details in (b) must give as much information as required by the PRA Rulebook:
SUP 13A.3.1CGRP
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
SUP 13A.3.6AGRP
10Where the PRA receives a notification, it will give a copy to the FCA, and where the FCA receives a notification, it will give a copy to the PRA where relevant.
SUP 13A.3.7DRP
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
SUP 13A.3.9GRP
(1) For further information, a Treaty firm should contact the FCA and/or PRA authorisations teams using the details provided on that regulator's website.1010
SUP 10A.14.1GRP
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
SUP 10A.14.2GRP
If an FCA-approved person or a PRA-approved person is ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or PRA controlled function, as well as applying for approval in respect of FCA controlled functions, SUP 10A.14.4 D generally applies. Further details can be found in SUP 10A Annex 2.
SUP 10A.14.3GRP
If a person is to perform an FCA controlled function for a firm for which he already performs a PRA controlled function or FCA controlled function as an approved person but he is not at the same time ceasing to perform an FCA controlled function or PRA controlled function, a firm should use Form A. It is not mandatory to complete all parts of the form. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
SUP 10A.14.4DRP
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform a significant-influence function for any firm or has not been subject to a current approved person approval from the FCA or PRA to perform a significant-influence function
SUP 10A.14.8RRP
A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the FCA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using the PRA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10B of the PRA's Handbook.