Related provisions for CREDS 3A.5.9

101 - 120 of 127 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

COLL 7.1.3GRP
(1) This chapter helps to achieve the statutory objective of protecting investors by ensuring the authorised fund manager does not sell5 or redeemunits at a price that cannot be calculated accurately. For instance, due to unforeseen circumstances, it may be impossible to value, or to dispose of and obtain payment for, all or some of the scheme property of an authorised fund or sub-fund. COLL 7.2.-3R, COLL 7.2.-2R, COLL 7.2.-1R, and5COLL 7.2.1 R set5 out the circumstances in which
EG 6.1.3RP
1Where it is investigating any matter, the FCA will, in exceptional circumstances, make a public announcement that it is doing so if it considers such an announcement is desirable to: (1) maintain public confidence in the financial system or the market; or (2) protect consumers or investors; or (3) prevent widespread malpractice; or (4) help the investigation itself, for example by bringing forward witnesses; or (5) maintain the smooth operation of the market. In deciding whether
SYSC 22.5.11GRP

Table: Examples of factors to take into account when deciding whether old misconduct is sufficiently serious to disclose

Factors to take into account

Comments

(A) Whether P has committed a serious breach of individual conduct requirements.

Individual conduct requirements has the same meaning as in Part Two of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by SMCR firms2 and disclosure requirements).

Factors to take into account in deciding whether the breach is serious include the following.

(1) The extent to which the conduct was deliberate or reckless.

(2) The extent to which the conduct was dishonest.

(3) Whether the breaches are frequent or whether they have continued over a long period of time. The fact that breaches were frequent or repeated may increase the likelihood that they should be disclosed since the breaches may show a pattern of non-compliance.

(4) The extent of loss, or risk of loss, caused to existing, past or potential investors, depositors, policyholders or other counterparties or customers.

(5) The reasons for the breach. For example, where the breach was caused by lack of experience which has been remedied by training or further experience, it is less likely that the breach will still be relevant.

(B) Whether the conduct caused B to breach requirements of the regulatory system or P was concerned in a contravention of such a requirement by B and, in each case, whether P’s conduct was itself serious.

(1) The factors in (A) are relevant to whether P’s conduct was serious.

(2) The seriousness of the breach by B is relevant. The factors in (A) are also relevant to this.

(3) A breach by B of certain requirements is always likely to be serious under (2). Breach of the threshold conditions is an example. However that does not mean that P’s involvement will automatically be serious.

(C) Whether P’s conduct involved dishonesty (whether or not also involving a criminal act).

Dishonesty is an important factor but it is not automatically decisive in every case. For instance, a small one-off case of dishonesty many years ago may not be sufficiently serious to require disclosure.

(D) Whether the conduct would have resulted in B’s dismissing P, had P still been working for B, based on B's disciplinary policies and the requirements of the law about unfair dismissal.

(E) Whether the conduct was such that, if B was considering P for a role today and became aware of the historical conduct, B would not employ P today notwithstanding the time that has passed.

Note 1: P refers to the employee about whom the reference is being written.

Note 2: B refers to the firm giving the reference.

COLL 5.7.11GRP
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
PERG 8.36.6GRP

Table Application of Exemptions to Forms of Promotions

Financial Promotion Order

Applies to

Article No.

Title and PERG 8 reference (where applicable)

Unsolicited real time

Solicited real time

Non-real time

(solicited or unsolicited)

12

Communications to overseas recipients (8.12.2G)

*1

*

*

13

Communications from customers and potential customers (8.12.9G)

*

*

*

14

Follow up non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.12.10G)

*

*

15

Introductions (8.12.11G)

*

*

*1

16

Exempt persons (8.12.12G)

*2

*3

*3

17

Generic promotions (8.12.14G and 8.21.4G)

*

*

*

17A1

Communications caused to be made or directed by unauthorised persons (8.6.7AG)

*

*

*

18

Mere conduits (8.12.18G)

*

*

*

18A

Outgoing electronic commerce communications: mere conduits, caching and hosting (8.12.18G)1

*

*

*

19

Investment professionals (8.12.21G and 8.21.5G)

*

*

*

20

Communications by journalists (8.12.23G)

*

20A

Promotion broadcast by company director etc (8.12.23G and 8.21.6G)

*

*

*

12

12

12

12

12

22

Deposits : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

23

Deposits : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

24

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

25

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications : reinsurance and large risks (8.13)

*

26

Relevant insurance activity : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

28

One-off non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.14.3G)

*

*

28A

One-off unsolicited real time communications (8.14.11G)

*

28B1

Real time communications: introductions in connection with qualifying credit (8.17.12G)

*

*

29

Communications required or authorised by enactments

*

*

*

30

Overseas communicators: solicited real time communications (8.14.15G)

*

31

Overseas communicators: non-real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.17G)

*

32

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.16G)

*

33

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to knowledgeable customers (8.14.16G)

*

34

Governments, central banks etc

*

*

35

Industrial and provident societies

*

*

12

12

12

12

37

Financial markets

*

*

38

Persons in the business of placing promotional material

*

*

*

39

Joint enterprises (8.14.19G)

*

*

*

40

Participants in certain recognised collective investment schemes

*

*

41

Bearer instruments: promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.14.42G)

*

*

42

Bearer instruments: promotions to existing holders (8.14.42G)

*

*

43

Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate (8.14.41G and 8.21.8G)

*

*

44

Members and creditors of open-ended investment companies

*

*

45

Group companies

*

*

*

46

Qualifying credit to bodies corporate (8.17.10G)1

*

*

*10

1046A

Promotions of credit etc. for business purposes (8.17-A.10G)

*

*

*

47

Persons in the business of disseminating information (8.21.10G)

*

*

*

48

High15 net worth individuals (8.14.21G)

*

*

49

High net worth companies, unincorporated associations etc (8.14.25G)

*

*

*

50

Sophisticated investors (8.14.27G)

*

*

*

50A

Self-certified sophisticated investors {8.14.28AG)

*5

*

*

51

Associations of high net worth or sophisticated investors (8.14.29G)

*

*

52

Common interest group of a company (8.14.30G)

*

*

53

Settlors, trustees and personal representatives

*

*

*

54

Beneficiaries of trust, will or intestacy

*

*

*

55

Communications by members of professions (8.15.1G)

*

*

55A

Non-real time communication by members of the professions. (8.15.5G)

*

56

Remedy following report by Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration

*

*

*

57

Persons placing promotional material in particular publications

*

*

*

58

Acquisition of interest in premises run by management companies

*

*

59

Annual accounts and directors' report (8.21.11G)

*

*

*

60

Participation in employee shares schemes

*

*

*

61

Sale of goods and supply of services

*

*

62

Sale of body corporate (8.14.35G)

*

*

*

64

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies

*

*

*

65

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: warrants etc

*

*

*

66

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: application forms

*

*

*

67

Promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.21.13G)

*

*

68

Promotions in connection with admission to certain EEA markets (8.21.16G)

*

*

69

Promotions of securities already admitted to certain markets (8.21.17G)

*

*1

701

Promotions included in listing particulars etc (8.21.20G)1

*1

711

Material relating to prospectus for public offer of unlisted securities

*1

721

Pension products offered by employers (8.14.40AG8)

*

*

*

872A

Pension product offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AAG)

*

*

*

872B

Insurance product offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ABG)

*

*

*

872C

Insurance products offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40ACG)

*

*

*

872D

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ADG)

*

*

*

872E

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AEG)

*

*

*10

1072F

Credit agreements offered to employees by employers

*

*

*

731

Advice centres (8.14.40B)

*

*

*

1 in limited circumstances only – see article 12(2) of the Financial Promotion Order

2 for the purpose of article 16 (2) only

3 for the purpose of article 16 (1) only1

MAR 5.10.2RRP
For an MTF to be eligible for registration as an SME growth market, the firm must have effective rules, systems and procedures which ensure that:(1) at least 50% of the issuers whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on the MTF are small and medium-sized enterprises at the time when the MTF is registered as an SME growth market, and in any calendar year thereafter;(2) appropriate criteria are set for initial and ongoing admission to trading of financial instruments
BIPRU 9.6.1ARRP
1An originator which has sold instruments in its trading book to an SSPE and no longer holds market risk capital requirements for these instruments, or a sponsor, must not, with a view to reducing potential or actual losses to investors, provide support to the securitisation beyond its contractual obligations.[Note: BCD Article 101(1)]
DEPP 6.5B.2GRP
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12B.7R11;

77

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12B.7R11; and

77

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8
DTR 2.5.2GRP
(1) Delaying disclosure of inside information will not always mislead the public, although a developing situation should be monitored so that if circumstances change an immediate disclosure can be made.(2) Investors understand that some information must be kept confidential until developments are at a stage when an announcement can be made without prejudicing the legitimate interests of the issuer.
COLL 6.6A.5RRP
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme 3 must comply with all regulatory requirements applicable to the conduct of its business activities so as to promote the best interests of its investors and the integrity of the market.[Note: article 14(1)(e) of the UCITS Directive]
23Windfall benefits should be determined in accordance with the principle in Needler Financial Services and Taber ('Needler'). The basic legal principle in Needler is that a windfall benefit is not to be taken into account in determining the amount of an investor's recoverable loss. The following paragraphs explain our views as to how firms may act in accordance with that principle.
SUP App 3.6.9GRP
In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm
EG 8.4.4RP
1Examples of requirements that the FCA may consider imposing when exercising its own-initiative power in support of its enforcement function are: a requirement not to take on new business; a requirement not to hold or control client money; a requirement not to trade in certain categories of specified investment; a requirement that prohibits the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of the firm’s assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricts