Related provisions for SUP 16.18.10
21 - 40 of 138 items.
The PRA Rulebook requires9firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87
1In advising or reporting on the exercise of discretion, an actuary performing the with-profits actuary function should cover the implications for the fair treatment of the relevant classes of the firm's with-profits policyholders. His opinion on any communication or report to them should also take into account their information needs and the extent to which the communication or report may be regarded as clear, fair and not misleading. Aspects of the business that should normally
A firm's duty to keep an actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function1 informed includes providing relevant information, even where the actuary1 does not ask for it. The firm needs to appreciate that the actuary1 may be unaware of certain business developments and so unable to request relevant information. 111
(1) A firm must establish, implement and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for the disclosure of reportable concerns by whistleblowers.(2) The arrangements in (1) must at least:(a) be able effectively to handle disclosures of reportable concerns including: (i) where the whistleblower has requested confidentiality or has chosen not to reveal their identity; and(ii) allowing for disclosures to be made through a range of communication methods; (b) ensure the effective
A firm’s training and development in line with SYSC 18.3.1R(2)(g) should include:(1) for all UK-based employees:(a) a statement that the firm takes the making of reportable concerns seriously;(b) a reference to the ability to report reportable concerns to the firm and the methods for doing so;(c) examples of events that might prompt the making of a reportable concern;(d) examples of action that might be taken by the firm after receiving a reportable concern by a whistleblower,
This rule applies to an EEA SMCR banking firm3 and a third-country SMCR banking firm3.2(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible to report using P’s
For the purposes of SYSC 18.3.6R(1) the possibility for P’s employees to disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or to the FCA does not override any obligation of P or its employees to report breaches to P’s Home State regulator of matters reserved by an EU instrument to that regulator.
1A firm2 must:(1) report to the FCA any2: (a) significant breaches of the firm's rules;(b) disorderly trading conditions;2(c) conduct that may involve market abuse; and2(d) system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument;2(2) supply the information required under this rule without delay to the FCA and any other authority competent for the investigation and prosecution of market abuse; and2(3) provide full assistance to the FCA, and any other authority competent for the
3A firm operating an MTF must give the FCA a summary of: (1) any proposal to introduce, amend or renew a scheme for rebating or waiving fees or charges levied on its members or participants (or any group or class of them), at the same time as the proposal is communicated to those members or participants; and (2) any such change, no later than the date when it is published or notified to the members or participants.
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2) In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of: (a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require competent authorities or central competent authorities to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the
(1) The scope of this chapter is as follows: In respect of position limit requirements in MAR 10.2, a commodity derivative position limit established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1) applies regardless of the location of the person at the time of entering into the position and the location of execution. [Note: article 57(14)(a) of MiFID](2) In respect of position management controls requirements:(a) the requirements contained or referred to in MAR 10.3 apply to persons
This chapter is structured as follows:(1) MAR 10.1 sets out an introduction to MAR 10, a description of the application of MAR 10 to different categories of person, an explanation of the approach taken to the UK transposition of articles 57 and 58 of MiFID, the scope and territoriality of this chapter, and the structure of this chapter. (2) MAR 10.2 sets out the position limit requirements. (3) MAR 10.3 sets out the position management controls requirements. (4) MAR 10.4 sets
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FCA12 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 15158(2) to implement certain
There is no duty on a person to report information directly to the regulator concerned unless they are one of the persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned. However, if a person takes steps to influence the decision not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the appropriate regulator will, in respect of that information, view
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
In order to enable the compliance function to discharge its responsibilities properly and independently, 16a firm that is a19 management company8 or an operator of an electronic system in relation to lending19 must ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the compliance function must have the necessary authority, resources, expertise and access to all relevant information;(2) a compliance officer must be appointed and must be responsible for the compliance function
(1) 4A firm which is not a common platform firm or management company8 and which carries on designated investment business with or for retail clients or professional clients must allocate to a director or senior manager the function of:(a) having responsibility for oversight of the firm's compliance; and(b) reporting to the governing body in respect of that responsibility.(2) In SYSC 6.1.4A R (1) compliance means compliance with the rules in:(a) COBS (Conduct of Business sourcebook);(b)
(1) A firm in (2) or (3)20 must appoint a compliance officer to be responsible for ensuring the firm meets its obligations under SYSC 6.1.1R for any compliance function the firm has and for any reporting as to compliance which may be made under SYSC 4.3.2R.20(2) This rule applies to:20(a) a debt management firm; and20(b) a credit repair firm. 20(3) This rule also applies to a firm that meets the following conditions:20(a) it is a Class 1 firm as defined in CMCOB 7.2.5R(1); and20(b)
A firm must include, as a minimum, the following requirements in its terms of reference for an IGC:(1) the IGC will act solely in the interests of relevant policyholders;(2) the IGC will assess the ongoing value for money for relevant policyholders delivered by relevant schemes particularly, though not exclusively, through assessing:(a) whether default investment strategies within those schemes:(i) are designed and executed in the interests of relevant policyholders;(ii) have
A firm must:(1) take reasonable steps to ensure that the IGC acts and continues to act in accordance with its terms of reference;(2) take reasonable steps to provide the IGC with all information reasonably requested by the IGC for the purposes of carrying out its role;(3) provide the IGC with sufficient resources as are reasonably necessary to allow it to carry out its role independently;(4) have arrangements to ensure that the views of relevant policyholders can be directly represented
(1) A firm should consider allocating responsibility for the management of the relationship between the firm and its IGC to a person at the firm holding an FCAsignificant-influence function or designated senior management function2.(2) A firm should fund independent advice for the IGC if this is necessary and proportionate.(3) A firm should not unreasonably withhold from the IGC information that would enable the IGC to carry out a comprehensive assessment of value for money.
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send its recovery plan or group recovery plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:Type of firm or qualifying parent undertakingType of planTotal balance sheet assets (see SUP 16.20.3 G)First reporting reference dateOngoing reporting reference datefirm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:Type of firm or qualifying parent undertakingFirst reporting reference dateOngoing reporting reference datefirm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm30 June 2015Every two years
Where an RRD institution is authorised or an RRD group is created after the first reporting reference date that would have applied to that firm or qualifying parent undertaking in line with SUP 16.20.2 R and SUP 16.20.4 R, the firm or qualifying parent undertaking must: (1) send its first recovery plan or group recovery plan and resolution plan information within three months of the first quarter end date which falls after six months of the date of the authorisation of the RRD
(1) 5Unless exempt under13FEES 6.2.1A R11, a participant firm must provide the FSCS by the end of February each year (or, if it has become a participant firm part way through the financial year13, by the date requested by the FCA13) with a statement of:4(a) 10classes and categories15 to which it belongs; and410(b) the total amount of business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base or tariff bases) which it conducted, in respect of the most recent valuation period
If a participant firm does not submit a complete statement by the date on which it is due in accordance with FEES 6.5.13 R and any prescribed submission procedures:(1) the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250 (but not if it is already subject to an administrative fee under FEES 4 Annex 2A R, Part 116 or FEES 5.4.1 R for the same financial year13); and16(2) the compensation costs levy and any specific costs levy will be calculated using (where relevant) the valuation or
For a transfer to another friendly society, if the conditions of 87(1) and 87(2) of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 are met a report is required from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will meet the necessary margin of solvency1. Where the conditions of 87(1) and 87(3) are met the appropriate authority1 may require a report from the appropriate actuary of the transferee to confirm that it will have an excess of assets over liabilities.11
For a transfer of long-term insurance business, the appropriate authority1 may, under section 88 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992, require a report from an independent actuary on the terms of the proposed transfer and on his opinion of the likely effects of the transfer on long-term policyholder members of either the transferor or (if it is a friendly society) the transferee. A summary is included in the statement sent to members (see SUP 18.4.13 G) and the full report is required
Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires a statement to be sent to every member of a friendly society entitled to vote on a transfer or amalgamation. Among other matters this statement has to cover the financial position of the friendly society and every other participant in the transfer or amalgamation. The members should be provided with sufficient financial information about the respective financial positions of the participants to gain an understanding of the
If the information relates to a position some time in the past, the information should state that there has been no significant change or include a clear description of the changes. Differences in accounting policies and reporting requirements could lead to the loss of some comparability between participants. Such differences and their estimated financial effects (if any) should be explained.
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of:(a) the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted; or8(b) in the case of firms in industry blocks 2 and 4, the gross written premium for fees purposes as defined in FEES 4 Annex 1AR
A firm may rely on a third party to calculate and report PRR capital requirements for position risk (general market risk and specific risk) for positions in CIUs falling within BIPRU 7.7.9R and BIPRU 7.7.11R, in accordance with the methods set out in BIPRU 7.7, provided that the correctness of the calculation and the report is adequately ensured.
The general eligibility criteria for using the methods in BIPRU 7.7.4R and BIPRU 7.7.9R - BIPRU 7.7.11R, for CIUs issued by companies supervised or incorporated within the EEA are that:(1) the CIU's prospectus or equivalent document must include:(a) the categories of assets the CIU is authorised to invest in;(b) if investment limits apply, the relative limits and the methodologies to calculate them;(c) if leverage is allowed, the maximum level of leverage; and(d) if investment
Where the appropriate regulator requests a firm to submit to it a written record of the firm's assessments of the adequacy of its capital resources carried out in accordance with INSPRU 7.1.15 R, those assessments must include an assessment comparable to a 99.5% confidence level over a one year timeframe that the value of assets exceeds the value of liabilities, whether or not this is the confidence level otherwise used in the firm's own assessments.
The appropriate regulator requires firms to submit a capital assessment calibrated to a common confidence level, as set out in INSPRU 7.1.42 R, to enable the appropriate regulator to assess whether the minimum capital resources requirements in GENPRU 2.1 are appropriate. This then allows the appropriate regulator to give a consistent level of individual capital guidance across the industry.
The written record of a firm'sindividual capital assessments carried out in accordance with INSPRU 7.1.15 R submitted by the firm to the appropriate regulator must:(1) in relation to the assessment comparable to a 99.5% confidence level over a one year timeframe that the value of assets exceeds the value of liabilities, document the reasoning and judgements underlying that assessment and, in particular, justify:(a) the assumptions used;(b) the appropriateness of the methodology
(1) A firm must monitor the transactions made by clients using the service to identify: (a) infringements of the rules of the trading venue; or (b) disorderly trading conditions; or (c) conduct which may involve market abuse and which is to be reported to the FCA.(2) A firm must have a binding written agreement with each client which: (a) details the essential rights and obligations of both parties arising from the provision of the service; and (b) states that the firm is responsible
A firm must provide the following, at the FCA’s request, within 14 days from receipt of the request: (1) a description of the systems mentioned in MAR 7A.4.2R(1); (2) evidence that those systems have been applied; and (3) information stored in accordance with MAR 7A.4.6R.[Note: article 17(5) of MiFID]
(1) The purpose of this section is to set out the requirements for a firm specified in SUP 16.16.1 R to report the outcomes of its prudent valuation assessments to the FCA4 and to do so in a standard format.255(2) The purpose of collecting this data on the prudent valuation assessments made by a firm is to assist the FCA4 in assessing the capital resources of firms, to enable the FCA4 to gain a wider understanding of the nature and sources of measurement uncertainty in fair-valued
(1) 5A firm to which this section applies must submit to the FCA4 quarterly (on a calendar year basis and not from a firm'saccounting reference date), within six weeks of each quarter end, a Prudent Valuation Return in respect of its fair-value assessments in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 31A.2(2) [deleted]45555