Related provisions for REC 6A.2.3
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(1) The following enable the FCA to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions:13(a) paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA of the Act;13(b) regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations;13(c) regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations;13(d) article 25(a) of the MCD Order;1513(e) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Businesses (Credit Information) Regulations. 13(f) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms)
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA17 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA17 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA17 under the Act. Paragraph 23(7) 21 however, has not been included 21.7This is 21the FCA's177 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected to be received are not
(1) 13The FCA also has a fee-raising power as a result of:14(a) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations;1514(b) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations;1514(c) regulation 40 of the DRS Regulations; and15(d) paragraph 25 of the Schedule 1 to the MiFI Regulations.15(2) The FCA’s functions under these regulations are treated as functions conferred on the FCA under the Act for the purposes of
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
Where the FCA1 requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act1 (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FCA1
2Where the FCA1 requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
In the3 case of a senior staff committee,3 the decision will be taken by FCA3 staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based or by two or more FCA staff who include a person not directly involved in establishing that evidence,3 except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.33
1When considering whether to cancel a sponsor's approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the sponsor; (2) the adequacy of the sponsor's systems and controls; (3) the sponsor's history of compliance with the listing rules; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected failure of the sponsor to meet (at
1When considering whether to cancel a primary information provider’s approval on its own initiative, the FCA will take into account all relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following: (1) the competence of the primary information provider; (2) the adequacy of the primary information provider’s systems and controls; (3) the primary information provider’s history of compliance with DTR 8; (4) the nature, seriousness and duration of the suspected
1The CCA Order does not require the FCA to publish procedures about its approach towards applications to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
6The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FCA’s4 use of the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) and section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act. The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to give assistance to a skilled person and, where a firm is required to appoint a skilled person, to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person. These rules are designed to ensure that the
1Under section 166 of the Act, the FCA has a power to require a firm and certain other persons to provide a report by a skilled person, or itself to appoint a skilled person to produce such a report. The FCA may use its section 166 power to require reports by skilled persons to support both its supervision and enforcement functions.
1The factors the FCA will consider when deciding whether to use the section 166 power include: (1) If the FCA's objectives for making further enquiries are predominantly for the purposes of fact finding i.e. gathering historic information or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FCA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 167 and 168 of the Act are likely to be more effective and more appropriate than the power under
1Under section 166A of the Act, the FCA also has a power to require a firm to appoint a skilled person to collect or update information, or itself to appoint a skilled person to do so, where it considers that the firm has failed to provide information required by the FCA or update information previously provided to the FCA.
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 12 Endeavour Square, London,
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FCA or PRA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FCA or PRA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FCA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance distribution or reinsurance distribution, that person7 must also be included on the
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
7Under section 60A(1) of the Act, before a relevant authorised person may make an application for the FCA's approval of a designated senior management function, the relevant authorised person8 must be satisfied that the person for whom the application is made is a fit and proper person to perform that function.8
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FCA7 may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.7
7Under sections 60A and 63F 7of the Act, in assessing whether a person is a fit and proper person to perform an FCA designated senior management function or an FCA specified significant-harm function, 7a relevant authorised person must have particular regard to whether that person:77(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FCA7 should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FCA7 may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person:777(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.7
3This guide describes the FCA's approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) and by other legislation. It is broken down into two parts. The first part provides an overview of enforcement policy and process, with chapters about the FCA's approach to enforcement (chapter 2), the use of its main information gathering and investigation powers under the Act and the CRA (chapter 3), the conduct of investigations
3In the areas set out below, the Act expressly requires the FCA to prepare and publish statements of policy or procedure on the exercise of its enforcement and investigation powers and in relation to the giving of statutory notices. (1) section 63C requires the FCA to publish a statement of its policy on the imposition, and amount, of financial penalties on persons that perform a controlled function without approval; (1-A) 1section 63ZD requires the FCA, among other things, to
3This guide includes material on the investigation, disciplinary and criminal prosecution powers that are available to the FCA when it is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (Official listing). The Act provides a separate statutory framework within which the FCA must operate when it acts in that capacity. When determining whether to exercise its powers in its capacity as competent authority under Part VI, the FCA will have regard to the matters
3Since most of the FCA’s enforcement powers are derived from it, this guide contains a large number of references to the Act. Users of the guide should therefore refer to the Act as well as to the guide where necessary. In the event of a discrepancy between the Act, or other relevant legislation, and the description of an enforcement power in the guide, the provisions of the Act or the other relevant legislation prevail. Defined terms used in the text are shown in italic type.
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FCA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
The FCA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FCA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
A firm authorised under Part 4A6 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission6 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission6 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):6666336(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
6If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
6If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) If the UK firm’sEEA right derives from the IDD, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt.198(2B) Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20 will at the same time:1020(a) communicate to the Host State regulator details of the compensation scheme intended to protect investors; and10(b)
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.