Related provisions for SYSC 5.2.52

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COLL 5.2.7ARRP
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in a transferable security only to the extent that the transferable security fulfils the following criteria:(a) the potential loss which the UCITS scheme may incur with respect to holding the transferable security is limited to the amount paid for it;(b) its liquidity does not compromise the ability of the authorised fund manager to comply with its obligation to redeemunits at the request of any qualifying unitholder (see COLL 6.2.16 R (3) );(c)
COLL 5.2.8RRP
(1) [deleted]77(2) [deleted]77(3) Transferable securities and approved money-market instruments7 held within a UCITS scheme must be:777(a) admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (1)(a) (Eligible markets: requirements); or(b) dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (1)(b); or(c) admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market within COLL 5.2.10 R (2); or(d) for an approved money-market instrument not admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market,
COLL 5.2.9GRP
(1) This section specifies criteria based on those in article 5013 of the UCITS Directive, as to the nature of the markets in which the property of a UCITS scheme may be invested.13(2) Where a market ceases to be eligible, investments on that market cease to be approved securities. The 10% restriction in COLL 5.2.8 R (4) applies, and exceeding this limit because a market ceases to be eligible will generally be regarded as a breach beyond the control of the authorised fund man
COLL 5.2.10RRP
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
COLL 5.2.10ARRP
(1) 7(In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market) a UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument provided it fulfils the following requirements:(a) the issue or the issuer is regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings; and(b) the instrument is issued or guaranteed in accordance with COLL 5.2.10B R.[Note: article 50(1)(h)(i) to (iii)13 of the UCITS Directive]13(2) The issue or the issuer of a money-market instrument,
COLL 5.2.10BRRP
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
COLL 5.2.10EGRP
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
COLL 5.2.20ARRP
(1) 7The financial indices referred to in COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) are those which satisfy the following criteria:(a) the index is sufficiently diversified;(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and (c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.(2) A financial index is sufficiently diversified if:(a) it is composed in such a way that price movements or trading activities regarding one component do not unduly influence the performance
COLL 5.2.33RRP
(1) The indices referred to in COLL 5.2.31 R are those which satisfy the following criteria:7(a) the composition is sufficiently diversified;7(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and7(c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.7(2) The composition of an index is sufficiently diversified if its components adhere to the spread and concentration requirements in this section.77(3) An index represents an adequate benchmark if its
COLL 5.2.35GRP
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
REC 6A.1.1GRP
1Under section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements in the United Kingdom to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
REC 6A.1.2GRP
In making these arrangements, the operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity, which is carried on as a part of its business of operating the market or facility in question, or in connection with, or for the purposes of that business.
REC 6A.1.3GRP
An EEA market operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity which is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated market or multilateral trading facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007 to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated market or multilateral trading facility.
REC 6A.1.4GRP
2In accordance with the RAP regulations, references in section 312A of the Act to specified regulated market and market are to be read as including reference to a specified auction platform and an auction platform as applicable.
MCOB 4.4A.2RRP
(1) The limitations in MCOB 4.4A.1 R include any limitations on the regulated mortgage contracts the firm will consider from within the relevant market. A firm which is offering services to a customer in respect of more than one type of relevant market must describe its services in relation to each such relevant market.(2) For these purposes, there are two relevant markets for regulated mortgage contracts (apart from lifetime mortgages): one for regulated mortgage contracts that
MCOB 4.4A.3GRP
(1) A firm that only offers products from one part of a relevant market (for example, just bridging loans) should not disclose its service as unlimited.(2) When considering whether there are any limitations in its product range across the relevant market, a firm need not take account of the existence of exclusive deals which a mortgage lender offers to be sold by one or a limited number of mortgage intermediaries only (and not generally by mortgage intermediaries across the relevant
MCOB 4.4A.3AGRP
3In making its disclosure under MCOB 4.4A.1R(1), a firm should indicate, for each relevant market, whether this is across first charge legal mortgages, second charge regulated mortgage contracts or both.
MCOB 4.4A.4RRP
(1) If a firm is not offering to the customer products from an unlimited range from across the relevant market, in2 its disclosure on product range in MCOB 4.4A.1 R, the firm must:22(a) where it is an MCD mortgage credit intermediary,2 list the names of all the mortgage lenders whose products it is offering; or(b) where it is not an MCD mortgage credit intermediary, either22(i) comply with (a); or2(ii) inform the customer of the number of mortgage lenders whose products it is
MCOB 4.4A.5GRP
A firm may be able to describe its product range as unlimited even if it offers its customers only a selection of the regulated mortgage contracts available from the relevant market, or uses ‘panels’. The firm would need to ensure that any panel, or selection of products, is sufficiently broad in its composition that it is representative of products from across the market, that it is reviewed regularly, and that its use does not materially disadvantage any customer. In such a
MCOB 4.4A.7GRP
(1) Firms are reminded that, in the light of the rules and guidance in SYSC, they should have adequate systems and controls in place to ensure that the disclosure they make to a customer about their service reflects the service the customer is actually offered.(2) Firms are also reminded that Principle 7 (Communications with clients) and MCOB 3A.2.1R (Fair, clear2 and not misleading communications) are also relevant to how they describe their services, including in any business
REC 4.2D.1GRP
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
REC 2.6.7EURP

Article 17 of the MiFID Regulation

2Pre-trade transparency obligations

(1)

A ... market operator operating an MTF or a regulated market shall, in respect of each share admitted to trading on a regulated market that is traded within a system operated by it and specified in Table 1 of Annex II [(see REC 2.6.8 EU)], make public the information set out in paragraphs 2 to 6.

(2)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a continuous auction order book trading system, it shall, for each share as specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the aggregate number of orders and of the shares those orders represent at each price level, for the five best bid and offer price levels.

(3)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a quote-driven trading system, it shall, for each share as specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the best bid and offer by price of each market maker in that share, together with the volumes attaching to those prices.

The quotes made public shall be those that represent binding commitments to buy and sell the shares and which indicate the price and volume of shares in which the registered market makers are prepared to buy or sell.

In exceptional market conditions, however, indicative or one-way prices may be allowed for a limited time.

(4)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a periodic auction trading system, it shall, for each share specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the price that would best satisfy the system's trading algorithm and the volume that would potentially be executable at that price by participants in that system.

(5)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a trading system which is not wholly covered by paragraphs 2 or 3 or 4, either because it is a hybrid system falling under more than one of those paragraphs or because the price determination process is of a different nature, it shall maintain a standard of pre-trade transparency that ensures that adequate information is made public as to the price level of orders or quotes for each share specified in paragraph 1, as well as the level of trading interest in that share.

In particular, the five best bid and offer price levels and/or two-way quotes of each market maker in that share shall be made public, if the characteristics of the price discovery mechanism permit it.

(6)

A summary of the information to be made public in accordance with paragraphs 2 to 5 is specified in Table 1 of Annex II. [(see REC 2.6.8 EU)]

REC 2.6.8EURP

Table 1 of Annex II to the MiFID Regulation: Information to be made public in accordance with Article 17 (see REC 2.6.9EU)

2Type of system

Description of system

Summary of information to be made public, in accordance with Article 17

continuous auction order book trading system

a system that by means of an order book and a trading algorithm operated without human intervention matches sell orders with matching buy orders on the basis of the best available price on a continuous basis

the aggregate number of orders and the shares they represent at each price level, for at least the five best bid and offer price levels.

quote-driven trading system

a system where transactions are concluded on the basis of firm quotes that are continuously made available to participants, which requires the market makers to maintain quotes in a size that balances the needs of members and participants to deal in a commercial size and the risk to which the market maker exposes itself

the best bid and offer by price of each market maker in that share, together with the volumes attaching to those prices

periodic auction trading system

a system that matches orders on the basis of a periodic auction and a trading algorithm operated without human intervention

the price at which the auction trading system would best satisfy its trading algorithm and the volume that would potentially be executable at that price

trading system not covered by first three rows

A hybrid system falling into two or more of the first three rows or a system where the price determination process is of a different nature than that applicable to the types of system covered by [the] first three rows

adequate information as to the level of orders or quotes and of trading interest; in particular, the five best bid and offer price levels and/or two way quotes of each market maker in the share, if the characteristics of the price discovery mechanism so permit

REC 2.6.15EURP

Article 27(1) of the MiFID Regulation

2Post-trade transparency obligation

1.

... regulated markets, and ... market operators operating an MTF shall, with regard to transactions in respect of shares admitted to trading on regulated markets concluded ... within their systems, make public the following details:

(a)

the details specified in points 2, 3, 6, 16, 17, 18 and 21 of Table 1 of Annex I [(see REC 2.6.16 EU)]

(b)

an indication that the exchange of shares is determined by factors other than the current market valuation of the share, where applicable [(see REC 2.6.17 EU)];

(c)

an indication that the trade was a negotiated trade, where applicable;

(d)

any amendments to previously disclosed information, where applicable.

Those details shall be made public either by reference to each transaction or in a form aggregating the volume and price of all transactions in the same share taking place at the same price at the same time.

REC 2.6.29GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices: 5(1) enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;(2) ensure:(a) sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of
DTR 6.4.1RRP
In respect of transferable securities which are admitted to trading on a regulated market, this section applies to: (1) an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom in accordance with the first indent of1 article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD; and(2) an issuer who chooses the United Kingdom as its Home State in accordance with:1(a) the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD; or1(b) article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD; or1(c) article 2.1(i)(iii) of the TD.1
DTR 6.4.4RRP
1Where an issuer has not disclosed its Home State as defined by the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD or article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD in accordance with DTR 6.4.2R and DTR 6.4.3R within a period of three months from the date the issuer’s securities are first admitted to trading on a regulated market, the Home State shall be:(1) the EEA State where the issuer’s securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or (2) where the issuer’s securities are admitted
COLL 6.6A.2RRP
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme 2 or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(1) ensure that the unitholders of any such scheme it manages are treated fairly;(2) refrain from placing the interests of any group of unitholders above the interests of any other group of unitholders;(3) apply appropriate policies and procedures for preventing malpractices that might reasonably be expected to affect the stability and integrity of the market;(4) (a) ensure
COLL 6.6A.3GRP
(1) Examples of malpractices for the purposes of COLL 6.6A.2R (3) would include market timing and late trading, which may have detrimental effects on unitholders and may undermine the functioning of the market.(2) Examples of undue costs for the purposes of COLL 6.6A.2R (5) would include unreasonable charges and excessive trading, taking into account the scheme's investment objectives and policy.[Note: recital (18) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.6A.4RRP
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(1) ensure a high level of diligence in the selection and ongoing monitoring of scheme property, in the best interests of the scheme and the integrity of the market;(2) ensure it has adequate knowledge and understanding of the assets in which any scheme it manages is invested;(3) establish written policies and procedures on due diligence and implement effective arrangements
COLL 6.6A.5RRP
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or the UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must comply with all regulatory requirements applicable to the conduct of its business activities so as to promote the best interests of its investors and the integrity of the market.[Note: article 14(1)(e) of the UCITS Directive]
REC 2.2.2GRP
The FCA3 will usually expect :3(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an
REC 2.2.4GRP
If a UK recognised body makes arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by persons who are authorised persons or recognised bodies, this does not alter its obligations under Regulation 6.
REC 2.2.6GRP
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
REC 2.2.7GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
DTR 1B.1.2RRP
Except as set out in DTR 1B.1.3 R, DTR 7.1 applies to an issuer: (1) whose transferable securities are admitted to trading; and(2) which is required to appoint a statutory auditor.
DTR 1B.1.3RRP
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which is a subsidiary undertaking of a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to:3(a) DTR 7.1, or to requirements implementing article 39 of the Audit Directive in any other EEA State; and3(b) articles 11(1), 11(2) and 16(5) of the Audit Regulation;3[Note: article 39(3)(a)3 of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed securities provided the entity makes a statement
DTR 1B.1.5RRP
Except as set out in DTR 1B.1.6R and DTR 1B.1.7R5, DTR 7.2 applies to an issuer: (1) whose transferable securities are admitted to trading; and(2) which is a company within the meaning of section 1(1) of the Companies Act 2006.
DTR 1B.1.6RRP
The rules in DTR 7.2.2 R, 7.2.3R, 7.2.7R and 7.2.8AR5 do not apply to an issuer which has not issued shares which are admitted to trading unless it has issued shares which are traded on an MTF.[Note: article 20(4) of the Accounting Directive4]
INSPRU 8.4.2GRP
The rules and guidance in this section1 are intended to promote confidence in the market at Lloyd's, and to protect certain consumers of services provided by the Society in carrying on, or in connection with or for the purposes of, its regulated activities. They do this by ensuring that the Society appropriately and effectively regulates the capacity transfer market so that it operates in a fair and transparent manner.1
INSPRU 8.4.3RRP
The Society must make appropriate byelaws governing conduct in the capacity transfer market.
INSPRU 8.4.6GRP
The Society should regularly review the byelaws referred to in INSPRU 8.4.3 R, taking account of the standards of conduct required in other UK financial markets.
REC 3.14A.1GRP
1The purpose of REC 3.14A is to ensure that the FCA3is informed of planned changes to a UK RIE markets and their regulatory status as either a regulated market or MTF. 3
REC 3.14A.2RRP
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new regulated market or close an existing regulated market it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.3 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them). 3
REC 3.14A.3RRP
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.14A.2 R:(1) where the UK RIE proposes to operate a new regulated market:(a) a description of the regulated market; and(b) a description of the specified investments which will be admitted to trading on that regulated market. (2) where the UK RIE proposes to close a regulated market, the name of that regulated market.
REC 2.7.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(a)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that -

access to the [UK RIE's] facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market and the interests of investors and is in accordance with paragraph 7B;

REC 2.7.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.

(2)

In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -

(a)

the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];

(b)

rules relating to transactions on the market;

(c)

its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE];

(d)

conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and

(e)

the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE].

(3)

Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only -

(a)

an investment firm,

(b)

a credit institution, or

(c)

a person who -

(i)

is fit and proper,

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence,

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d).

(4)

Rules under this paragraph must enable -

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or

(b)

a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive,

by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities.

3

(6)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.

REC 2.7.3GRP
In assessing whether access to a UK recognised body's facilities is subject to criteria designed to protect the orderly functioning of the market, or of those facilities, and the interests of investors, the FCA3 may have regard to whether: 3(1) the UK recognised body limits access as a member to persons:(a) over whom it can with reasonable certainty enforce its rules contractually;(b) who have sufficient technical competence to use its facilities;(c) whom it is appropriate to
MAR 5.3.1RRP
1A firm operating an MTF must have:(1) transparentand non-discretionary rules and procedures for fair and orderly trading;[Note:Article 14(1) of MiFID](2) objective criteria for the efficient execution of orders;[Note: Article 14(1) of MiFID](3) transparent rules regarding the criteria for determining the financial instruments that can be traded under its systems;[Note: Subparagraph 1 of Article 14(2) of MiFID](4) transparent rules, based on objective criteria, governing access
MAR 5.3.7GRP
1The FCA will be minded to impose a variation on the Part 4A Permission of an MTF operator that operates a primary market in shares not admitted to trading on a regulated market in order to ensure its fulfilment of the requirements in MAR 5.3.1 R as regards fair and orderly trading.
MAR 5.3.8RRP
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: Article 14(6) of MiFID]
REC 6A.2.1GRP
1Under section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement, and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.5
REC 6A.2.6GRP
The operator's right to make arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together with its exempt person status) if the FCA5 is satisfied that the contravention which led the FCA5 to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.55
REC 6A.2.7GRP
3In accordance with the RAP regulations, references in section 312B of the Act to regulated market are to be read as including reference to an auction platform and references to MiFID are to be read as including reference to the auction regulation.
REC 2.8.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(d)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that -

satisfactory arrangements which comply with paragraph 7D are made for securing the timely discharge (whether by performance, compromise or otherwise) of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on the [UK RIE] (being rights and liabilities in relation to those transactions);

REC 2.8.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7D

2(1)

The rules of the [UK RIE] must permit a user or member of a regulated market operated by it to use whatever settlement facility he chooses for a transaction.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) only applies where -

(a)

such links and arrangements exist between the chosen settlement facility and any other settlement facility as are necessary to ensure the efficient and economic settlement of the transaction; and

(b)

the [UK RIE] is satisfied that the smooth and orderly functioning of the financial markets will be maintained.

REC 2.8.3GRP
In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions, the FCA3 may have regard to the UK recognised body's:3(1) rules and practices relating to clearing and settlement including its arrangements with another person for the provision of clearing and settlement services;3(2) arrangements for matching trades and ensuring that the parties are in agreement about trade details;(3) where
REC 6.1.1GRP
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:2(1) obtain a Part 4A permission2 from the FCA2; 22(2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights) or Schedule 4 (Treaty
REC 6.1.2GRP
Having the status of an ROIE2 facilitates the participation of overseas investment exchanges in UKmarkets. In comparison with authorisation, it reduces the involvement which UK authorities need to have in the day-to-day affairs of an overseas recognised body because they are able to rely substantially on the supervisory and regulatory arrangements in the country where the applicant's head office is situated.22
REC 1.1.1GRP
The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as RIEs4 under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) and (as RAPs)4 under the RAP regulations.344
REC 1.1.1AGRP
The guidance in REC 6A applies to EEA market operators exercising passporting rights in the United Kingdom. 2
REC 1.1.3GRP
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
DTR 5.8.2RRP
(1) A notification required of voting rights arising from the holding of financial instruments4 must include the following information:(a) the resulting situation in terms of voting rights;(b) if applicable, the chain of controlled undertakings through which financial instruments4 are effectively held;(c) the date on which the threshold was reached or crossed;(d) for instruments with an exercise period, an indication of the date or time period where shares will or can be acquired,
DTR 5.8.10RRP
A notification in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, must be made using the form TR1 available in electronic format at the FCA's website at http://www.fca.org.uk.
DTR 5.8.12RRP
(1) An issuer not falling within (2) must, in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, on receipt of a notification as soon as possible and in any event by not later than the end of the trading day following receipt of the notification make public all of the information contained in the notification.(2) A non-UK issuer and any other issuers whose shares are admitted to trading on a prescribed (but not a regulated) market must, on receipt of a notification,
LR 14.3.1RRP
Other than in regard to securities to which LR 4 applies, the4listedequity shares5 of a company2 must be admitted to trading on a regulated market for listed securities operated by a RIE.4524
LR 14.3.11GRP
A company2 whose shares4are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under the disclosure requirements6 and transparency rules.244
LR 14.3.22GRP
1A company2, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules) and DTR 6 (Access to information).2
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.

PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the