The name of the firm;
Related provisions for SUP 15.3.16
21 - 40 of 311 items.
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator6 by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.65355
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA6 in respect of all those firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA in respect of all those firms which are not PRA-authorised persons.6 The section 178 notice5should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator6 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA6 containing
3A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing of the intention of another member of its group which is not a firm to issue a capital instrument which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group as soon as it becomes aware of the intention of the groupundertaking to issue the capital instrument. When giving notice, a firm must:(1) provide details of the amount of capital
3A firm must provide a further notification to the appropriate regulator in writing including all the information required in BIPRU 8.6.1BR (1) to (4) as soon as it becomes aware of any changes that are proposed to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, stage of capital or any other feature of the capital instrument previously notified to the appropriate regulator.
3If a groupundertaking proposes to establish a debt securities program for the issue of capital instruments which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, it must:(1) notify the appropriate regulator of the establishment of the program; and(2) provide the information required by BIPRU 8.6.1BR (1) to (4); as soon as it becomes aware of the proposed establishment. The appropriate
3The capital instruments to which BIPRU 8.6.1B R does not apply are:(1) ordinary shares issued by a groupundertaking which:(a) are the most deeply subordinated capital instrument issued by that groupundertaking;(b) meet the criteria set out in GENPRU 2.2.83R (2) and GENPRU 2.2.83R (3) and GENPRU 2.2.83A R; and(c) are the same as ordinary shares previously issued by that groupundertaking;(2) debt instruments issued from a debt securities program established by a groupundertaking,
3A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing, no later than the date of issue, of the intention of a groupundertaking to issue a capital instrument listed in BIPRU 8.6.1E R which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. When giving notice a firm must:(1) provide the information set out at BIPRU 8.6.1BR (1) to (3); and(2) confirm that the terms of the capital instrument
A firm must comply with the requirements set out in GENPRU 2.2.135R (Notifying the appropriate regulator of unusual transactions in relation to indirectly issued capital) and GENPRU 2.2.137 R (Contents of marketing documents in relation to indirectly issued capital) in relation to consolidated indirectly issued capital included in consolidated capital resources.
Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the requirements in regulation 4(4) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) the appropriate UK regulator12 has received a notice stating those details; and12(3) either:(a) the appropriate UK regulator12 has informed the firm that it may make the change;
Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the incoming EEA firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.3 G or SUP 14.2.8 G, inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions (regulation 4(6)).112
If the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, the firm is required by regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.2 G) or regulation 6(5) (see SUP 14.2.5 G (2)) to give a notice to the appropriate UK regulator12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the change as soon as reasonably practicable.12
6The relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3) are that:(1) the EEA MiFID investment firm has given notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and(2) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the EEA MiFID investment firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.
6Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the EEA MiFID investment firm is subject. The appropriate UK regulator12 will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.11 G inform the EEA MiFID investment firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions. 12
8An EEA firm that is exercising an EEA right to provide auction regulation bidding from a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FSA of any change to the information submitted under SUP 13A.4.5 R by email to firstname.lastname@example.org prior to the change or whenever possible thereafter.
10The relevant requirements in regulation 7B(4) are that: (1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA and its home state regulator stating the details of the proposed changes; and (2) either: (a) the FCA has informed the incoming EEA firm that it may make the change; or(b) a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which the incoming EEA firm gave the notice under (1).
(1) A CASS debt management firm must, once every year and by the time it is required to make a notification in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R, determine whether it is a CASS large debt management firm or a CASS small debt management firm according to the amount of client money which it held during the previous year or, if it did not hold client money during the previous year, according to the amount of client money it projects to hold in the following year, in each case using the
Once every calendar year, a CASS debt management firm must notify the FCA, in writing, of the information in (1), (2) or (3), as applicable, and the information in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):(1) if it held client money in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later than the fifteenth business day of January; or (2) if it did not hold
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 11.2.3 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied, a CASS debt management firm that would otherwise be classified as a CASS small debt management firm under the limits provided for in CASS 11.2.3 R may elect to be treated as a CASS large debt management firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case: (a) the election is notified to the FCA in writing;(b) the notification in accordance with (a) is made at least one week before
A firm's 'CASS debt management firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (1) or CASS 11.2.4 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 11.2.7 R and provided the conditions in CASS 11.2.7 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification made under
A firm is required to provide the FCA2 with a wide range of information to enable the FCA2 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting requirements. Principle 11 includes
This chapter sets out:(1) guidance on the type of event or change in condition which a firm should consider notifying in accordance with Principle 11; the purpose of this guidance is to set out examples and not to give comprehensive advice to firms on what they should notify in order to be in compliance with Principle 11;(2) rules on events and changes in condition that a firm must notify; these are the types of event that the FCA2 must be informed about, usually as soon as possible,
3SUP 15.11 (Notification of COCON breaches and disciplinary action) provides rules and guidance on notifications to the FCA by a relevant authorised person where the relevant authorised person4 takes disciplinary action in relation to any conduct rules staff and the reason for taking that action is a reason specified in rules made by the FCA. This is a requirement imposed4 under section4 64C of the Act.
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if: 2(a) the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:2(i) an FCA controlled function that is2 a significant-influence function; or2(ii) an FCA-designated senior management function; or2(iii) a PRA controlled
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
If an FCA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs an FCA controlled function must notify the FCA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 7R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the customer function for the firm. The firm should notify the FCA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately, in writing by e-mail or hand-delivered letter, if Regulation 18(2), or 24(1)(c) of the RCB Regulations (obligation to inform FCA if asset pool not capable, or not likely to be capable of covering claims) is triggered.
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately in writing by e-mail, or hand-delivered letter, if requirements relating to the relevant regulated covered bond under the RCB Regulations or RCB are, or are likely to be, materially breached, or of any other matter which the FCA should be made aware of.
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
(1) 4Subject to (2A), a5firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fca.org.uk5 using the FCA'sONA6system.556(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) A firm must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) that relates to
4If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1 R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
A sponsor must provide to the FCA on or after the first business day of January in each year but no later than the last business day of January in each year:77(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R; and5(1A) for each of the criteria in that rule, evidence8 of the basis upon which it considers that it meets that criterion8.588(2) [deleted]55(3) [deleted]55(4) [deleted]55
A sponsor must notify the FCA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) 8(a) 8the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R or becomes aware of any matter which, in its reasonable opinion, would be relevant to the FCA in considering whether the sponsor continues to comply with LR 8.6.6 R; or(b) 8the sponsor becomes aware of any fact or circumstance relating to the sponsor or any of its employees engaged in the provision of sponsor services
8Where a sponsor is of the opinion that notwithstanding the circumstances giving rise to a notification obligation under LR 8.7.8 R, it continues to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R, it must include in its notification to the FCA a statement to that effect and the basis for its opinion.
8Examples of when a sponsor should submit a cancellation request pursuant to LR 8.7.22 R include, but are not limited to:(1) situations where the sponsor ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R and, following a notification made under LR 8.7.8 R, there are no ongoing discussions with the FCA which could lead to the conclusion that the sponsor remains eligible; or(2) where there is a change of control of the sponsor or any
11A sponsor may wish to consider submitting a suspension request under LR 8.7.25 R where the sponsor:(1) ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R; (2) has notified the FCA in accordance with LR 8.7.8 R;(3) is having ongoing discussions with the FCA regarding remedial action; and(4) is undertaking remedial action which may result in the sponsor being able to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval in accordance with LR 8.6.6
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
The issuer must send to the FCA, information relating to the asset pool, in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 2D (asset notification form), and information relating to the regulated covered bonds issued under the programme, in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 3 D (asset and liability profile form).1
1If the issuer or the owner (as the case may be) proposes to add or remove assets to or from the asset pool which change the level of over collateralisation by 5% or more, it must notify the FCA using the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 2 D (asset notification form) at least 5 business days prior to the proposed transfer, giving expected details of the size and composition of the transfer.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FCA2to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to an RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations1. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.2).121(2) The FCA2does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event, and:2(1) inform the FCA2of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;2(2) inform the FCA2of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for an RAP) RAPrecognition requirements1 following that delegation;2(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing a
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FCA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) email to email@example.com.
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R,11SUP 12.4.8A R4, SUP 12.4.10A R or SUP 12.4.10B R11 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under
(1) 8Subject to (2A), a 9firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sONA10system.910(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) If the notification:9(a) relates to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment covers only credit-related regulated activity; or9(b) is of a change to
Except where the purchases will consist of individual transactions made in accordance with the terms of issue of the relevant securities, where1 a listed company intends to purchase any of its securities convertible into its equity shares2 with a premium listing2 it must:1(1) ensure that no dealings in the relevant securities are carried out by or on behalf of the company or any member of its group until the proposal has either been notified to a RIS or abandoned; and(2) notify
Any purchases, early redemptions or cancellations of a company's own securities convertible into equity shares with a premium listing,2 by or on behalf of the company or any other member of its group must be notified to a RIS when an aggregate of 10% of the initial amount of the relevant class of securities has been purchased, redeemed or cancelled, and for each 5% in aggregate of the initial amount of that class acquired thereafter.2
The notification required by LR 12.5.2 R must be made as soon as possible and in any event no later than 7:30 a.m. on the business day following the calendar day on which the relevant threshold is reached or exceeded. The notification must state:(1) the amount of securities acquired, redeemed or cancelled since the last notification; and(2) whether or not the securities are to be cancelled and the number of that class of securities that remain outstanding.
In circumstances where the purchase is not being made pursuant to a tender offer and the purchase causes a relevant threshold in LR 12.5.2 R to be reached or exceeded, no further purchases may be undertaken until after a notification has been made in accordance with LR 12.5.2 R to LR 12.5.4 R.
(1) 3Except as set out in (3), a participant firm which does not conduct business that could give rise to a protected claim by an eligible claimant and has no reasonable likelihood of doing so is exempt from a specific costs levy, or a compensation costs levy, or both, provided that:(a) it has notified the FSCS in writing that those conditions apply; and(b) the conditions in fact continue to apply.(2) The exemption takes effect from the date on which the notice was received by
If a participant firm ceases to conduct business that could give rise to a protected claim by an eligible claimant and notifies the FSCS of this under FEES 6.2.1 R (1), it will be treated as a participant firm to which FEES 6.7.6 R applies until the end of the financial year of the compensation scheme in which the notice was given.
The financial year of the compensation scheme is the twelve months ending on 31 March. The effect of FEES 6.2.6 R and FEES 6.2.1 R (2) is that if a firm fails to notify FSCS of an exemption under FEES 6.2.1 R by 31 March it will be treated as non-exempt for the whole of the next financial year.2
The Society must, as soon as it is practical to do so, notify the FCA2of its intention to make any amendment which may alter the meaning or effect of any byelaw, including:2(1) any Lloyd's trust deed;(2) any standard form letter of credit prescribed by the Society from time to time; or(3) any standard form guarantee agreement prescribed by the Society from time to time.
The information provided to the 2FCA2by the Society under INSPRU 8.2.25 R must include:(1) a statement of the purpose of any proposed amendment or new Lloyd's trust deed and the expected impact, if any, on policyholders, managing agents, members, and potential members; and(2) a description of the consultation undertaken under INSPRU 8.2.26 R including a summary of any significant responses to that consultation.
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the appropriate regulator will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The appropriate regulator will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The appropriate regulator will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date
Consistent with Principle 11 of the appropriate regulator'sPrinciplesfor Businesses (Relations with regulators), if a firm has not accepted individual liquidity guidance given by the appropriate regulator it should, nevertheless, notify the appropriate regulator as soon as it becomes aware of either of the events identified in BIPRU 12.9.14R (2)(a) or (b).
Although BIPRU 12.9.25 R requires notification and submission in the way prescribed in that rule, the appropriate regulator expects that a firm would also bring to the attention of its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator the fact that it had made such a notification or submission.
Under section 294 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FCA1 may, on the application or with the consent of a recognised body (including an ROIE),1 direct that any notification rule is not to apply to the body or is to apply with such modifications as may be specified in the waiver.11
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.