Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.4

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CASS 11.4.2RRP
Money ceases to be client money if:(1) it is paid to the client, or a duly authorised representative of the client; or(2) it is:(a) paid to a third party on the instruction of the client, or with the specific consent of the client; or(b) paid to a third party further to an obligation on the firm under any applicable law; or(3) it is paid into an account of the client (not being an account which is also in the name of the firm) on the instruction, or with the specific consent,
MAR 1.2.6ERP
In the opinion of the FCA , the following factors are to be taken into account in determining whether or not refraining from action amounts to behaviour which satisfies section 118(1)(a) of the Act and are indications that it does:(1) if the person concerned has failed to discharge a legal or regulatory obligation (for example to make a particular disclosure) by refraining from acting; or(2) if the person concerned has created a reasonable expectation of
MAR 1.2.16ERP
In the opinion of the FCA , a factor which indicates that there is a pending order or bid3 for a client is, if a person is approached by another in relation to a transaction, and:(1) the transaction is not immediately executed on an arm's length basis in response to a price quoted by that person; and(2) the person concerned has taken on a legal or regulatory obligation relating to the manner or timing of the execution of the transaction.
CONC 7.6.15GRP
(1) CONC 7.6.12 R, CONC 7.6.13 R and CONC 7.6.14 R do not prevent a firm accepting payment (including a part payment) from a customer using a means of payment other than under a continuous payment authority. If, for example, a customer consents separately that a single payment of a specified amount may be taken on the same day or on another specified day using his or her debit card details, this is excluded from the definition of continuous payment authority.(2) CONC 7.6.14 R
(1) 2Paragraph (2) applies where a guarantor has provided a guarantee or an indemnity (or both) in respect of high-cost short-term credit. (See CONC 7.1.4R for the meanings of “guarantor” and “guarantee”.)(2) CONC 7.6.12R and CONC 7.6.13R apply to a continuous payment authority granted by the borrower and to a continuous payment authority granted by a guarantor separately. This means that the firm may make up to two requests for payment under a continuous payment authority granted
For independent price verification, where independent pricing sources are not available or pricing sources are more subjective (for example, only one available broker quote), prudent measures such as valuation adjustments may be appropriate.
Reconciliation differences under GENPRU 1.3.34 R should not be reflected in the valuations under GENPRU 1.3 but should be disclosed to the FCA14 in prudential returns.10Firms which are subject to the reporting requirement under SUP 16.16 should disclose those reconciliation differences in the Prudent Valuation Return which they are required to submit to the FCA14 under SUP 16.16.4 R.
(1) A non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF must not invest in units in schemes in COLL 5.7.7R (1) to (3) (‘second schemes’) unless the authorised fund manager has carried out appropriate due diligence on each of the second schemes and:(a) is satisfied, on reasonable grounds and after making all reasonable enquiries, that each of the second schemes complies with relevant legal and regulatory requirements;(b) has taken reasonable care to determine that:(i) the property of
COLL 5.7.11GRP
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
SUP 12.6.1ARRP
7A firm that is a principal of a tied agent that is an appointed representative must monitor the activities of that tied agent so as to ensure the firm complies with obligations imposed under MiFID (or equivalent obligations relating to the equivalent business of a third country investment firm) when acting through that tied agent.[Note: paragraph 3 of Article 23(2) of MiFID]
SUP 12.6.1BRRP
11A firm that is a principal of an appointed representative that carries on MCD credit intermediation activity must monitor the activities of that appointed representative to ensure compliance with obligations imposed under the MCD (including those in MCOB and TC).[Note: article 31(3) of the MCD]
BIPRU 4.10.45RRP
A firm must have clearly specified criteria for adjusting grades, pools or LGD estimates, and in the case of retail exposures and eligible purchased receivables, the process of allocating exposures to grades or pools, to reflect the impact of guarantees for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts. These criteria must comply with the minimum requirements referred to in BIPRU 4.10.43 R.[Note: BCD Annex VII Part 4 point 101]
BIPRU 4.10.51RRP
GA as calculated under BIPRU 5.8.11 R is then taken as the value of the protection for the purposes of calculating the effects of unfunded credit protection under the IRB approach.[Note: BCD Annex VIII Part 4 point 8 (part)]
(1) The 5credit union'sgoverning body5has responsibility for ensuring that the credit union complies with the requirements of SYSC 4.1.1 R (see CREDS 2.2.1 G and CREDS 2.2.2 G). So, the governing body5 has overall responsibility for:(a) establishing objectives and formulating a business plan;(b) monitoring the financial position of the credit union;(c) determining and documenting policies and procedures;(d) directing and coordinating the work of all employees and volunteers, and
The main reasons why a credit union should maintain adequate accounting and other records are:(1) to provide the governing body5 with adequate financial and other information to enable it to conduct its business in a prudent manner on a day-to-day basis;(2) to safeguard the assets of the credit union and the interests of members and persons too young to be members; (3) to assist officers of the credit union to fulfil their regulatory and statutory duties in relation to the preparation
Sections 62 to 64 and 114(1) of the CCA continue to apply to a regulated agreement under which a person takes any article in pawn. A firm which fails to observe its obligations under those provisions may be subject to disciplinary action by the FCA. [Note: section 115 of CCA]
Once the lender has repaid the charges to the borrower or has confirmed there are no charges to repay the borrower is then under a statutory obligation to repay any credit received under the agreement.
PERG 4.5.17GRP
The FCA would normally expect an introducer to keep a written record of disclosures made to the borrower under article 33A of the Regulated Activities Order including those cases where disclosure is made on an oral basis only.
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
In discharging its obligations under CASS 6.3.1 R,6 a firm should also consider, as appropriate,6 together with any other relevant matters:6(1) the third party's performance of its services to the firm;6(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example "Assurance reports on internal controls of services organisations made available to third parties" made in line with Technical
In the case of interest-rate contracts that meet the criteria in BIPRU 13.4.8 R and have a remaining maturity of over one year, a firm must apply a percentage no lower than 0.5%.[Note: BCD Annex III Part 3, Table 1 footnote 27 (part)]
5A person will not be subject to COCON to the extent that it would be contrary to the UK's obligations under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation.
(1) A firm must have in place contingency funding plans setting out adequate strategies and proper implementation measures in order to address potential liquidity shortfalls. (2) The contingency funding plans must be: (a) in writing;(b) approved by the firm'sgoverning body;(c) regularly tested; and(d) updated on the basis of the outcome of the stress tests, testing alternative scenarios set out in MIPRU 4.2D.8 R.
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344
(1) The authorised fund manager operates the scheme on a day-to-day basis. Its operation is determined by the rules in this chapter, which require appropriate powers in the instrument constituting the fund3 or refer to the need to state the relevant operating procedures in the prospectus of the scheme.3(2) The authorised fund manager does not necessarily have to carry out all the activities it is responsible for and may delegate functions to other persons. The rules in this chapter
For life insurance policies pledged to a lending firm to be recognised the following conditions must be met:(1) the party providing the life insurance must be subject to the Solvency II Directive2, or is subject to supervision by a competent authority of a third country which applies supervisory and regulatory arrangements at least equivalent to those applied in the Community;112(2) the life insurance policy is openly pledged or assigned to the lending firm;(3) the party providing
(1) 1Under EMIR, where a firm that is a clearing member4 of an authorised central counterparty defaults, the authorised central counterparty may:4(a) portclient positions where possible; and(b) after the completion of the default management process:(i) return any balance due directly to those clients for whom the positions are held, if they are known to the authorised central counterparty; or(ii) remit any balance to the firm for the account of its clients if the clients are