Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B
21 - 40 of 188 items.
(1) The FCA has certain powers in relation to PRA-approved persons, such as the requirement for FCA consent to the PRA granting approval for the performance of a PRA controlled function. SUP 10C does not deal with these.(2) However, SUP 10C.12.1G has material about the FCA's policy on giving its consent to applications made to the PRA about conditional and time-limited approvals.
The appropriate regulator1 may revoke a waiver at any time. In deciding whether to revoke a waiver, the appropriate regulator1 will consider whether the conditions in section 138A(4)1 of the Act are no longer satisfied (see SUP 8.3.1 G), and whether the waiver is otherwise no longer appropriate.1111
If the appropriate regulator1 proposes to revoke a waiver, or revokes a waiver with immediate effect, it will:1(1) give the firm written notice either of its proposal, or of its action, giving reasons;(2) state in the notice a reasonable period (usually 28 days) within which the firm can make representations about the proposal or action; if a firm wants to make oral representations, it should inform the appropriate regulator1 as quickly as possible , specify who will make the
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers and fee-paying electronic money issuers)107 calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR1726 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;26(2) for each of the applicable26 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm for that period;269(3) add together
(1) [deleted]17262612112626111126(1A) [deleted] 1726(1B) [deleted] 1726(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)25 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and25(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA25 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)25 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding
If a firm pays its fees through an agent outside the scope of FEES 4.3.7 R, the firm is responsible for ensuring that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)25 is informed that the sum being paid is for that firm's periodic fees.25
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
A firm carrying on long-term insurance business must identify the assets relating to its long-term insurance business which it is required to hold by virtue of the requirements in the Non Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Technical Provisions and Non-Solvency II firms: Insurance Company – Mathematical Reserves parts of the PRA Rulebook.833
The overall impact of the requirements in the PRA Rulebook to hold admissible assets of a value at least equal to the amount of technical provisions, when read together with INSPRU 1.5.18R, is that any firm writing long-term insurance business must identify separately assets of a value at least equal to the amount of its long-term insurance businesstechnical provisions, including those in respect of any property-linked liabilities or index-linked liabilities, and its other long-term
As a result of INSPRU 1.5.27R (2), an actuarial investigation undertaken to determine an established surplus remains in-date for three months from the date as at which the determination of the surplus was made. However, even where the investigation is still in-date, the firm should not make the transfer unless there is sufficient surplus at the time of the transfer to allow it to be made without breach of8 the requirements in PRA Rulebook: Non Solvency II firms: Insurance Company
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA states in its Approach Documents that analysis of such firms' business models will form an important part of the PRA's supervisory approach. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not apply to the PRA's own assessment of the firms' business models.
(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person
(1) The controlled functions specified by the FCA for credit unions and other relevant authorised persons can be found in the table in SUP 10C.4.3R.211(2) The controlled functions specified by the PRA for credit unions and other relevant authorised persons can be found in the PRA’s Rulebook. They are not summarised in the Handbook.2
2(1) The FCA and the PRA have specified different functions.2(2) Sometimes a person’s job description means that they are performing an FCA controlled function and a PRA controlled function at the same time for the same firm. SUP 10C.9 has arrangements that reduce the need for the same person to be approved by both the FCA and the PRA.2
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable).2151515
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
A management responsibilities map must include:(1) (a) the names of all the firm's:(i) approved persons (including PRA approved persons); (ii) members of its governing body and (if different) management body who are not approved persons; (iii) senior management; and(iv) senior personnel; and(b) details of the responsibilities which they hold;(2) all responsibilities described in any current statement of responsibilities; (3) details of the management and governance arrangements
The management responsibilities map should include functions that are:(1) included in a PRA controlled function under SUP 10C.9 (Minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime); or(2) excluded from the other overall responsibility function under SUP 10C.7.1R(2) (Exclusion for approved person with approval to perform other designated senior management functions).
(1) The FCA expects that the management responsibilities map of a small and non-complex firm is likely to be simple and short. It may be no more than a single sheet of paper.(2) A firm is likely to be small and non-complex for these purposes if:(a) it is:(i) a small CRR firm as defined in the part of the PRA's rulebook called “Allocation of responsibilities”; or(ii) a credit union that meets the size requirements for small CRR firms under the PRA's requirements in (a)(i);(b) it
SUP 10A.9 applies only to a firm which:(1) under SYSC 2.1.1 R, chapters 2, 3 and 5 of the Allocation of Responsibilities parts of3 the PRA Rulebook applicable to Solvency II Firms and Non-Solvency II firms3 or SYSC 4.1.1 R, apportions a significant responsibility, within the description of the significant management function, to a senior manager of a significant business unit; or22(2) undertakes proprietary trading.42(3) [deleted]42
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions, under SUP 10A.9.1R (1), a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions. If so, the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes
(1) An FCA-approved SMF manager's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. (2) Where the changes will involve the SMF manager performing one or more FCA-designated senior management functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the SMF manager to perform those FCA-designated senior management functions.(3)
(1) A firm must notify the FCA no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved SMF manager ceases to perform an FCA-designated senior management function.(2) It must make that notification by submitting to the FCA a completed Form C (SUP 10A Annex 6R).(3) If: (a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function within the same firm or group; and(b) ceasing to perform the FCA-designated senior management function
If a firm is required to notify the FCA about a PRA-approved SMF manager who is not an FCA-approved SMF manager under one of the sections of the Act referred to in SUP 10C.14.28R, it should make a single notification under the PRA's requirements. There is no need for a separate notification to the FCA.
6Paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the effective supervision threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.
6Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing effective supervision under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the effective supervision threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If a person is to perform an FCA controlled function for a firm for which he already performs a PRA controlled function or FCA controlled function as an approved person but he is not at the same time ceasing to perform an FCA controlled function or PRA controlled function, a firm should use Form A. It is not mandatory to complete all parts of the form. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if: 2(a) the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:2(i) an FCA controlled function that is2 a significant-influence function; or2(ii) an FCA-designated senior management function; or2(iii) a PRA controlled
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function within the same firm or group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that application for approval:2(i)
(1) Unless a firm cannot reasonably compare a maturity payment with a calculated asset share, it must:(a) set a target range for the maturity payments that it will make on:(i) all of its with-profits policies; or(ii) each group of its with-profits policies;(b) ensure that each target range:(i) is expressed as a percentage of unsmoothed asset share; and(ii) includes 100% of unsmoothed asset share; and(c) manage its with-profits business, and the business of each with-profit fund,
5Loans to a connected person using assets in a with-profits fund should be considered as investments of assets within the with-profits fund. As such, a Solvency II firm will need to ensure that: (1) such loans comply with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments having regard to COBS 20.2.35B G; and(2) where there is a conflict of interests, in the reasonable opinion of the firm's senior management, they are in the best interests of the with-profits policyholders in the
(1) 5A Solvency II firm is required to consider its investment strategy in relation to the assets in a with-profits fund, including any strategic investments, in accordance with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments. Firms are expected, in applying the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments, to take into account the particular circumstances and requirements of the liabilities in the with-profits fund to which those assets relate. For example, a Solvency II firm
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
(1) 8Part VII of the Act prescribes certain statutory functions in relation to insurance business transfer schemes for both the PRA and the FCA. In accordance with the Act, the PRA and the FCA maintain a Memorandum of Understanding, which describes each regulator’s role in relation to the exercise of its functions under the Act relating to matters of common regulatory interest and how each regulator intends to ensure the coordinated exercise of such functions. Under the Memorandum
The initial documentary8 information on the scheme should be provided to the PRA, who will share it with the FCA, and8 should include its broad outline and its purpose. Each regulator may8 indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.88
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Solvency II Directive6) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
8When assessing a proposed scheme under Part VII of the Act each regulator will, taking into account all relevant matters in each case, consider whether it should provide a report to the court. As it will lead the Part VII process for insurance business transfers, the PRA will usually provide such a report.
If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The appropriate regulator1 will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its appropriate1 supervisory contact.111
Action which a firm takes either to restore its capital resources to the levels set by the intervention points in PRA2 Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty or PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Run Off Operations2, or to prevent its capital resources falling below those points, should be consistent with Principle 6 of the FCA's Principles for Businesses. Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.
Where a firm submits a plan for restoration under2 PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty or PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Run Off Operations2, the FCA would expect an explanation of how any actions it plans to take to restore its capital resources are consistent with the firm's obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests).