Related provisions for TC 2.2A.2
41 - 60 of 146 items.
In this chapter, the following interpretations of risk management terms apply:(1) a firm's risk culture encompasses the general awareness, attitude and behaviour of its employees and appointed representatives or, where applicable, its tied agents,1to risk and the management of risk within the organisation;(2) operational exposure means the degree of operational risk faced by a firm and is usually expressed in terms of the likelihood and impact of a particular type of operational
(1) A firm must have appropriate procedures in place for its employees to report breaches internally through a specific, independent and autonomous channel.(2) The channel in (1) may be provided through arrangements provided for by social partners, subject to the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 and the Employment Rights Act 1996 to the extent that they apply.[Note: article 71(3) of CRD]
FIT applies to:(1) a firm;(2) an applicant for Part 4A permission;(3) and EEA firm, a Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier that wishes to establish a branch into the United Kingdom using EEA rights, Treaty rights or UCITS directive rights (see SUP 10.1.12 G9SUP 10A.1.10 G and SUP 10B.1.10 G9 and SUP 10.1.13 R9SUP 10A.1.11 R and SUP 10B.1.11 R9), or apply for a top-up permission (see SUP 10.1.14 R9SUP 10A.1.13 RSUP 10B.1.12 R9);(4) an approved person; and(5) a candidate.
1A firm must make appropriate records to demonstrate compliance with the rules in this sourcebook and keep them for the following periods after an employee stops carrying on the activity:(1) at least 5 years for MiFID business;(2) 3 years for non-MiFID business; and(3) indefinitely for a pension transfer specialist.
A firm must take all reasonable steps to identify conflicts of interest between:3(1) the firm, including its managers, employees and appointed representatives (or where applicable, 2tied agents)2, or any person directly or indirectly linked to them by control, and a client of the firm; or2(2) one client of the firm and another client;that arise or may arise in the course of the firm providing any service referred to in SYSC 10.1.1 R.[Note: article 18(1) of MiFID]
6An AIFM must take all reasonable steps to identify conflicts of interest that arise, in the course of managing AIFs, between:(1) the AIFM, including its managers, employees or any person directly or indirectly linked to the AIFM by control, and an AIF managed by the AIFM or the investors in that AIF; or(2) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another AIF or the investors in that AIF; or(3) an AIF or the investors in that AIF, and another client of the AIFM; or(4) an AIF or
5Even though working for more than one firm is likely to mean that the person will not be able to rely on the grounds in PERG 2.3.6 G to escape the general prohibition (see PERG 2.3.7G (6)), that will not always be the case. In particular, say that a person is acting as an employee of one firm (Firm A) and as a self-employed agent of another firm (Firm B). In his capacity as an employee of Firm A, the person would not be carrying on his own business. Thus, the general prohibition
14A full-scope UK AIFM must, in particular:(1) have rules for personal transactions by its employees or for the holding or management of investments it invests on its own account;(2) ensure that each transaction involving the AIFs may be reconstructed according to its origin, the parties to it, its nature, and the time and place at which it was effected; and(3) ensure that the assets of the AIFs managed by the AIFM are invested in accordance with the instrument constituting the
(1) If the appointed representative is appointed to give advice on investments to retail clients7 concerning packaged products, the firm should also satisfy itself that the contract requires compliance with the rules in COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration).979(2) The contractual requirements in SUP 12.5.5 R should extend to:(a) the activities of the appointed representative, if the appointed representative is an individual; and3(b) the activities
(1) 4Twice a year a firm must provide the
FCA
with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible complainants about matters relating to activities7 carried out by its employees when acting as7retail investment advisers. The report must be set out in the format in DISP 1 Annex 1C R. 7(2) DISP 1 Annex 1C R requires (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(a) the total number of complaints received by the firm about matters relating toactivities7 carried
For the purpose of DISP 1.10.2 R, DISP 1.10.2-A R618 and DISP 1.10.2A R,4 when completing the return, the firm should take into account the following matters.(1) If a complaint could fall into more than one category, the complaint should be recorded in the category which the firm considers to form the main part of the complaint.(2) Under DISP 1.10.2R (3)(a) or DISP 1.10.2-A R618, a firm should report any complaint to which it has given a response 1which upholds the complaint,
8The analysis must be set out in writing and dated before the date of issue of the capital instrument and the firm must be able to show that the analysis has been fully considered as part of its decision to proceed with the issue. The analysis must be conducted by a person or persons appropriately qualified to assess the relevant risks and that person may be an independent adviser or an employee of the firm who is not part of the business unit responsible for the transaction
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if one of the following events arises and the event is significant:35(1) it becomes aware that an employee may have committed a fraud against one of its customers; or(2) it becomes aware that a person, whether or not employed by it, may have committed a fraud against it; or(3) it considers that any person, whether or not employed by it, is acting with intent to commit a fraud against it; or(4) it identifies irregularities
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT or ACS6, the FCA would interpret the concept of directors in common to
The following are examples of
behaviour
that might fall within the scope of section 123(1)(b) :(1) a director of a company, while in possession of inside information, instructs an employee of that company to
deal in qualifying investments or related investments in respect of which the information is inside information;(2) a person recommends or advises a friend to engage in
behaviour
which, if he himself engaged
The following examples of market abuse (insider dealing) concern the definition of inside information relating to financial instruments other than
commodity derivatives.(1) X, a director at B PLC has lunch with a friend, Y. X tells Y that his company has received a takeover offer that is at a premium to the current share price at which it is trading. Y enters into a spread bet priced or valued by reference to the share price of B PLC based on his expectation that
The obligations to supply information to:(1) the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8 R or SUP 10A.14.10 R;(2) another firm under SUP 10A.15.1 R;apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
Any sale for cash, transfer for the purposes
of or pursuant to an employees' share scheme or
cancellation of treasury shares that represents over 0.5% of the listed company'sshare capital 2 must be notified to a RIS as
soon as possible and in any event by no later than 7:30 a.m. on the business day following the calendar day on
which the sale, transfer or cancellation occurred. The notification must include:2(1) the date of the sale, transfer
or cancellation;(2) the number of