Related provisions for SUP 13A.5.4A
41 - 60 of 135 items.
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading
a client about the risks of
an investment;(3) misleading
a client about the charges or
surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading
a client about the likely performance
of investment products by providing
inappropriate projections of
future investment returns;(5) misleading
a client by informing him that
products require only a single
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or
the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
Generally, in relation to a UK establishment of an overseas firm or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager’s responsibilities in relation to the United Kingdom are strategic only, he will not need to be an FCA-approved person. However, where, in accordance with SYSC 3 or SYSC 4 to SYSC 10, he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide or suspend a primary information provider's approval if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89V of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The appropriate regulator1 will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its appropriate1 supervisory contact.111
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the appropriate regulator1 if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.1
Once the appropriate regulator1 has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the appropriate regulator1 to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the appropriate regulator1wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's agent in relation to the collection of PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity to an approved person (or persons) performing:(1) a governing function (other than the non-executive director function); or(2) the apportionment and oversight function; or(3) the significant management function in so far as it relates to dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so) or an activity which
(1) Typically a firm3 will appoint a person performing a governing function (other than the non-executive director function) to direct its insurance mediation activity. Where this responsibility is allocated to a person performing another function, the person performing the apportionment and oversight function with responsibility for the apportionment of responsibilities must ensure that the firm'sinsurance mediation activity is appropriately allocated.3(2) The descriptions of
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions. The FCA3threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions for which the FCA is responsible,3 which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retainPart 4A permission. A PRA-authorised person or, as appropriate, a firm seeking to become a PRA-authorised person must also satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible in order to be given and
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
(1) An allocation in FEES 6.5A.1 R to an FCA provider contribution class other than the home finance providers and administrators' contribution class may not be of an amount that, if it were added to any compensation costs levies or specific costs levies which have previously been imposed on the PRA funding class which corresponds to that FCA provider contribution class (as set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R) the combined figure would be greater than the levy limit of the corresponding
The corresponding PRA funding classes and corresponding activity groups referred to in FEES 6.5A.2 R and FEES 6.5A.6 R respectively are as follows:
FCA provider contribution class |
Corresponding PRA funding class |
Corresponding activity group |
Deposit acceptor's contribution class |
Deposits |
A.1: Deposit acceptors |
Insurers - life contribution class |
Life and pensions provision |
A.4: Insurers - life |
Insurers - general contribution class |
General insurance provision |
A.3: Insurers - general |
Home finance providers and administrators' contribution class |
None |
A.2: Home finance providers and administrators |