Related provisions for LR 15.5.3

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COLL 6.8.1RRP
(1) This section applies to an authorised fund manager.(2) COLL 6.8.4 R (1) (Unclaimed, de minimis and joint unitholder distributions) also applies to the depositary of an authorised fund.(3) Except in the case of COLL 6.8.2 R (1) (Accounting periods) and COLL 6.8.3 R (1) (Income allocation and distribution), COLL 6.8 applies as if each sub-fund were a separate authorised fund.
COLL 6.8.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund must have:(a) an annual accounting period;33(b) a half-yearly accounting period; and(c) an accounting reference date.(2) A half-yearly accounting period begins when3 an annual accounting period begins3 and ends on:13(a) the day which is six months before the last day of that annual accounting period; or(b) some other reasonable date as set out in the prospectus of the scheme.1(3) The first annual accounting period of a scheme must begin:(a) on the first
COLL 6.8.3RRP
(1) An authorised fund must have an annual income allocation date, which must be within four months of the end of the relevant annual accounting period.33(2) An authorised fund may have interim income allocation dates and one or more interim accounting periods for each of those dates2 and, if it does, the interim income allocation date must be within four months of the end of the relevant interim accounting period(s).22(3) An authorised fund must have a distribution account to
COLL 8.1.2GRP
(1) This chapter assists in achieving the statutory objective of protecting consumers by providing an appropriate degree of protection in respect of authorised funds that are only intended for investors that are, in general, prepared to accept a higher degree of risk in their investments or have a higher degree of experience and expertise than investors in retail schemes.(2) This section ceases to apply where a qualified investor scheme has converted to be authorised as a UCITS
COLL 8.1.4GRP
(1) Qualified investor schemes are authorised funds which are intended only for professional clients and for retail clients who are2 sophisticated investors. For this reason, qualified investor schemes are subject to a restriction on promotion under COBS 4.12.3 R. See also COBS 4.12.13 G.22123211(1A) 3The authorised contractual scheme manager of a qualified investor scheme which is4 an ACS must take reasonable care to ensure that subscription in relation to the units of this type
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FCA.
SUP 16.6.2GRP

Applicable provisions of this section (see SUP 16.6.1 G)

Category of firm

Applicable provisions

Bank

4

SUP 16.6.4 R - SUP 16.6.5 R

Trustee of an AUT

Depositary of an ICVC

Depositary of an ACS5

SUP 16.6.6 R - SUP 16.6.9 G

7

SUP 16.6.6RRP
A firm within a category listed in the left-hand column of SUP 16.6.7 R must submit compliance reports in accordance with SUP 16.6.7 R.
SUP 16.6.8RRP
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
COLL 5.1.1RRP
(1) Subject to 1(A),3COLL 5.1 to COLL 5.5 apply to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of an authorised fund, and to an ICVC, which is or ever has been a UCITS scheme.(1A) The only sections of COLL 5 that apply to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a feeder UCITS, and to an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS, are COLL 5.3 and COLL 5.8, although particular rules in COLL 5.1, COLL 5.2 and COLL 5.5 are incorporated by reference.3(2) Subject to 2(A),1COLL 5.1,
COLL 5.1.2GRP
(1) This chapter helps in achieving the statutory objective of protecting consumers by laying down minimum standards for the investments that may be held by an authorised fund. In particular:(a) the proportion of transferable securities and derivatives that may be held by an authorised fund is restricted if those transferable securities and derivatives are not listed on an eligible market; the intention of this is to restrict investment in transferable securities or derivatives
COLL 5.1.3RRP
(1) Where a rule in this chapter allows a transaction to be entered into or an investment to be retained only if possible obligations arising out of the transaction or out of the retention would not cause the breach of any limits in this chapter, it must be assumed that the maximum possible liability of the authorised fund under any other of those rules has also to be provided for.(2) Where a rule in this chapter permits a transaction to be entered into or an investment to be
COLL 3.3.2GRP
(1) The instrument constituting the fund5 may provide for different classes of unit to be issued in an authorised fund and, for a scheme which is an umbrella, provide that classes of units may be issued for each sub-fund.5(2) In order to be satisfied that COLL 3.2.2 R (Relationship between the Instrument constituting the fund5and the rules) is complied with, the FCA will take into account the principles in (a) to (c) when considering proposals for unit classes:5(a) a unit class
COLL 3.3.5RRP
(1) If any class of units in an authorised fund has different rights from another class of units in that fund, the instrument constituting the fund5 must provide how the proportion of the value of the scheme property and the proportion of income available for allocation attributable to each such class must be calculated.5(2) For an authorised fund which is not an umbrella, the instrument constituting the fund5 must not provide for any class of units in respect of which:5(a) the
COLL 3.3.9RRP
If there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in an authorised fund, or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:(1) that arrangement or protection must not be such as to cause the possibility of a conflict of interest as between:(a) unitholders and the authorised fund manager or depositary; or(b) unitholders intended and not intended to benefit
REC 2.6.7EURP

Article 17 of the MiFID Regulation

2Pre-trade transparency obligations

(1)

A ... market operator operating an MTF or a regulated market shall, in respect of each share admitted to trading on a regulated market that is traded within a system operated by it and specified in Table 1 of Annex II [(see REC 2.6.8 EU)], make public the information set out in paragraphs 2 to 6.

(2)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a continuous auction order book trading system, it shall, for each share as specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the aggregate number of orders and of the shares those orders represent at each price level, for the five best bid and offer price levels.

(3)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a quote-driven trading system, it shall, for each share as specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the best bid and offer by price of each market maker in that share, together with the volumes attaching to those prices.

The quotes made public shall be those that represent binding commitments to buy and sell the shares and which indicate the price and volume of shares in which the registered market makers are prepared to buy or sell.

In exceptional market conditions, however, indicative or one-way prices may be allowed for a limited time.

(4)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a periodic auction trading system, it shall, for each share specified in paragraph 1, make public continuously throughout its normal trading hours the price that would best satisfy the system's trading algorithm and the volume that would potentially be executable at that price by participants in that system.

(5)

Where one of the entities referred to in paragraph 1 operates a trading system which is not wholly covered by paragraphs 2 or 3 or 4, either because it is a hybrid system falling under more than one of those paragraphs or because the price determination process is of a different nature, it shall maintain a standard of pre-trade transparency that ensures that adequate information is made public as to the price level of orders or quotes for each share specified in paragraph 1, as well as the level of trading interest in that share.

In particular, the five best bid and offer price levels and/or two-way quotes of each market maker in that share shall be made public, if the characteristics of the price discovery mechanism permit it.

(6)

A summary of the information to be made public in accordance with paragraphs 2 to 5 is specified in Table 1 of Annex II. [(see REC 2.6.8 EU)]

REC 2.6.8EURP

Table 1 of Annex II to the MiFID Regulation: Information to be made public in accordance with Article 17 (see REC 2.6.9EU)

2Type of system

Description of system

Summary of information to be made public, in accordance with Article 17

continuous auction order book trading system

a system that by means of an order book and a trading algorithm operated without human intervention matches sell orders with matching buy orders on the basis of the best available price on a continuous basis

the aggregate number of orders and the shares they represent at each price level, for at least the five best bid and offer price levels.

quote-driven trading system

a system where transactions are concluded on the basis of firm quotes that are continuously made available to participants, which requires the market makers to maintain quotes in a size that balances the needs of members and participants to deal in a commercial size and the risk to which the market maker exposes itself

the best bid and offer by price of each market maker in that share, together with the volumes attaching to those prices

periodic auction trading system

a system that matches orders on the basis of a periodic auction and a trading algorithm operated without human intervention

the price at which the auction trading system would best satisfy its trading algorithm and the volume that would potentially be executable at that price

trading system not covered by first three rows

A hybrid system falling into two or more of the first three rows or a system where the price determination process is of a different nature than that applicable to the types of system covered by [the] first three rows

adequate information as to the level of orders or quotes and of trading interest; in particular, the five best bid and offer price levels and/or two way quotes of each market maker in the share, if the characteristics of the price discovery mechanism so permit

REC 2.6.15EURP

Article 27(1) of the MiFID Regulation

2Post-trade transparency obligation

1.

... regulated markets, and ... market operators operating an MTF shall, with regard to transactions in respect of shares admitted to trading on regulated markets concluded ... within their systems, make public the following details:

(a)

the details specified in points 2, 3, 6, 16, 17, 18 and 21 of Table 1 of Annex I [(see REC 2.6.16 EU)]

(b)

an indication that the exchange of shares is determined by factors other than the current market valuation of the share, where applicable [(see REC 2.6.17 EU)];

(c)

an indication that the trade was a negotiated trade, where applicable;

(d)

any amendments to previously disclosed information, where applicable.

Those details shall be made public either by reference to each transaction or in a form aggregating the volume and price of all transactions in the same share taking place at the same price at the same time.

REC 2.6.29GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices: 5(1) enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;(2) ensure:(a) sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of
COLL 5.6.7RRP
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of government and public securities.(2) Not more than 20% in value of the scheme property is to consist of deposits with a single body.(3) Not more than 10% in value of the scheme property is to consist of transferable securities or money-market instruments issued by any single body subject to COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index).(3A) The limit of 10% in (3) is raised to 25% in value of the scheme property in respect of covered bonds.9(4)
COLL 5.6.11RRP
(1) 15Units in a scheme do not fall within COLL 5.6.10 R if that scheme is managed or operated by (or, if it is an ICVC, has as its ACD) the authorised fund manager of the investing non-UCITS retail scheme or by an associate of that authorised fund manager, unless:15(a) the prospectus of the investing authorised fund clearly states that the property of that investing fund may include such units; and(b) the conditions in COLL 5.2.16 R (Investment in other group schemes) are complied
COLL 6.6.4RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund must take reasonable care to ensure that the scheme is managed by the authorised fund manager in accordance with:(a) COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers);(b) COLL 6.2 (Dealing);(c) COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing);(d) COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution); and(e) any provision of the instrument constituting the fund11 or prospectus that relates to the provisions referred to in (a) to (d).11(2) The depositary
COLL 6.6.6RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years such records as enable:(a) the scheme and the authorised fund manager to comply with the rules in this sourcebook and the OEIC Regulations; and(b) it to demonstrate at any time that such compliance has been achieved.(2) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years a daily record of the units in the scheme held, acquired or disposed of by the authorised fund manager, including the classes of such
COLL 6.6.12RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund is responsible for the safekeeping of all of the scheme property (other than tangible movable property) entrusted to it and must:(a) take all steps and complete all documents needed to ensure completion of transactions properly entered into for the account of the scheme;(b) ensure that scheme property in registered form is, as soon as practicable, registered in the name of the depositary, its nominee, or a person retained by it under COLL
COLL 6.6.13RRP
(1) The depositary must take all necessary steps to ensure that instructions given to it by the authorised fund manager for the exercise of rights attaching to the ownership of scheme property are carried out.(2) Where the scheme property of an authorised fund contains units in any other scheme managed or otherwise operated by the authorised fund manager10 of the AUT or ACS10 or, as the case may be, by any director of the ICVC or by any associate of either, the depositary must
LR 15.1.1RRP
2This chapter applies to a closed-ended investment fund applying for, or with, a premium listing3.33
COLL 6.1.3GRP
(1) The authorised fund manager operates the scheme on a day-to-day basis. Its operation is determined by the rules in this chapter, which require appropriate powers in the instrument constituting the fund3 or refer to the need to state the relevant operating procedures in the prospectus of the scheme.3(2) The authorised fund manager does not necessarily have to carry out all the activities it is responsible for and may delegate functions to other persons. The rules in this chapter
IFPRU 8.2.14GRP
If a firm has an exposure to a person ('A') when A is acting on his own behalf, and also an exposure to A when A acts in his capacity as trustee, custodian or general partner of an investment trust, unit trust, venture capital or other investment fund, pension fund or a similar fund (a "fund"), the firm may treat the latter exposure as if it was to the fund, unless such a treatment would be misleading.
IFPRU 8.2.15GRP
When considering whether the treatment described is misleading, factors a firm should consider include:(1) the degree of independence of control of the fund, including the relation of the fund's board and senior management to the firm or to other funds or to both;(2) the terms on which the counterparty, when acting as trustee, is able to satisfy its obligation to the firm out of the fund of which it is trustee;(3) whether the beneficial owners of the fund are connected to the
INSPRU 8.2.19RRP
The Society must take all reasonable steps to ensure that each member:(1) executes the appropriate Lloyd's trust deeds; and(2) carries to the appropriate Lloyd's trust fund all amounts received or receivable by the member, or on its behalf, in respect of any insurance business carried on by it.
INSPRU 8.2.22RRP
In complying with INSPRU 8.2.19 R to INSPRU 8.2.21 R, the Society and managing agents must take all reasonable steps to ensure that amounts received or receivable by a member in respect of general insurance business and long-term insurance business are carried to separate Lloyd's trust funds.
COLL 7.5.1GRP
(1) The FCA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under sections1 256 or 261W1 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ACS1, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FCA receives
COLL 7.5.2GRP
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
COLL 1.1.1GRP
(1) This sourcebook, except for COLL 9 (Recognised schemes), applies to:(a) investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs);(b) ACDs, other directors and depositaries of ICVCs;3(c) managers and trustees of authorised unit trust schemes (AUTs); 34(cA) authorised fund managers, depositaries and nominated partners of authorised contractual schemes (ACSs); and4(d) to the extent indicated, UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes.3(2) COLL 9 applies to operators
COLL 1.1.2GRP
(1) The general purpose of this sourcebook is to contribute to the FCA meeting its statutory objectives of the protection of consumers. It provides a regime of product regulation for authorised funds, which sets appropriate standards of protection for investors by specifying a number of features of those products and how they are to be operated.(2) In addition, this sourcebook implements part of the requirements of the UCITS Directive to meet EU law 2 obligations relevant to authorised
COLL 2.1.2GRP
This chapter helps in achieving the statutory objectives of protecting consumers by ensuring that any application for authorisation of a fund meets certain standards.
COLL 2.1.4DRP
An application for an authorisation order in respect of an authorised fund must be:(1) in writing in the manner directed and contain the information required in the application form available from the FCA;(2) addressed for the attention of a member of FCA staff responsible for collective investment scheme authorisation matters; and(3) delivered to the FCA'saddress by one of the following methods:(a) posting; or(b) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt;
COLL 7.6.1GRP
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FCA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)2 or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change
COLL 7.6.2RRP
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
COLL 8.5.9RRP
(1) The value of the scheme property is the net value of the scheme property after deducting any outstanding borrowings (including any capital outstanding on a mortgage of an immovable).(2) Any part of the scheme property which is not an investment (save an immovable) must be valued at fair value.(3) For the purposes of (2), any charges that were paid, or would be payable, on acquiring or disposing of the asset must be excluded from the value of that asset.(4) The value of the
COLL 8.5.12ARRP
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund must take reasonable steps to ensure that no body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of that fund (the "maximum allowable").(2) Where the authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund becomes aware that a body corporate holds more than the maximum allowable, he must:(a) notify the body corporate of that event;(b) not pay any income distribution to the body corporate;
COLL 8.5.12BGRP
4Reasonable steps to monitor the maximum allowable include:(1) regularly reviewing the register; and(2) taking reasonable steps to ensure that unitholders are kept informed of the requirement that no body corporate may hold more than 10% of the net asset value of a property authorised investment fund.
FEES 6.5A.2RRP
(1) An allocation in FEES 6.5A.1 R to an FCA provider contribution class other than the home finance providers and administrators' contribution class may not be of an amount that, if it were added to any compensation costs levies or specific costs levies which have previously been imposed on the PRA funding class which corresponds to that FCA provider contribution class (as set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R) the combined figure would be greater than the levy limit of the corresponding
FEES 6.5A.3GRP
In considering which of the options in FEES 6.5A.2 R (2) to adopt, the FSCS will generally impose a levy, rather than borrow or utilise funds as described in FEES 6.5A.2R(2)(c), unless the latter options appear to be preferable in the specific circumstances prevailing at the relevant time.
DISP 2.6.1RRP
(1) The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives) , of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution)or of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution) carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.77(2) The Compulsory Jurisdiction also covers complaints about:9779(a) collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management
DISP 2.6.2GRP
This:519(1) includes incoming EEA firms, incoming EEAauthorised payment institutions6, incoming EEA authorised electronic money institutions820 and incoming Treaty firms; but(2) excludes complaints about business conducted in the United Kingdom on a services basis from an establishment outside the United Kingdom (other than complaints about collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management company in managing a UCITS scheme, and complaints about AIFM
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3) 75applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 75

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 75

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 75

134343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

73

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE73 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7373

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957329573295732973297329

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555735735

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27329732973

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the

appropriate regulator

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the

appropriate regulator

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the

appropriate regulator

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the

appropriate regulator's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the appropriate regulator would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

except in the cases specified in FEES 3 Annex 6A

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 75 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 73FEES 4 Annex 1BR 75 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in

FEES 3 Annex 1

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in

FEES 3 Annex 1

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of

FEES 3 Annex 1

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in

FEES 3 Annex 1

which apply to that application30

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).75

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,73 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

303075751737375130302311

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1374 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713747227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA72 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.72

72The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7272

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]73

73
73 91673

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

73(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

73(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 75

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 75

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 75

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 75

On or before the application is made.75

32Part 2: Other fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report.

(ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19