Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
21 - 40 of 406 items.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FSA to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to an RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations1. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.2).11(2) The FSA does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which form
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) inform the FSA of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;(2) inform the FSA of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for an RAP) RAPrecognition requirements1 following that delegation;(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing a written
If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in more than one EEA State including
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in English and must also be made available either in a language
accepted by the competent authorities of each Host
State or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [Note: article
19.3
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
(1) Before an EEA firm5(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)53exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act,
The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 13A.4.5 R is to enable the FSA to supervise the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions on an ongoing basis. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 G (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FSA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question
Even with a cross-border element a person may still be carrying on an activity 'in the United Kingdom'. For example, a person who is situated in the United Kingdom and who is safeguarding and administering investments will be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even though his client may be overseas.
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context
A person based outside the United Kingdom may also be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even if he does not have a place of business maintained by him in the United Kingdom (for example, by means of the internet or other telecommunications system or by occasional visits). In that case, it will be relevant to consider whether what he is doing satisfies the business test as it applies in relation to the activities in question. In addition, he may be able to rely on the
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established
A domestic UCITS merger between two or more UCITS schemes, or a cross-border UCITS merger between one or more UCITS schemes which is or are the merging UCITS and one or more EEA UCITS schemes, is permissible provided:(1) it is effected in accordance with the requirements of:(a) the UCITS Regulations 2011, which include the need for the FSA to have made a prior order approving the proposed merger (which may be made subject to (2)); and(b) this chapter; and (2) in the case of a
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FSA to give prior
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
(1) The information document that must be provided to unitholders under COLL 7.7.10 R (Information to be given to unitholders) by the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme must be written in a concise manner and in non-technical language.(2) In the case of a proposed cross-border UCITS merger, the authorised fund manager of the UCITS scheme, being either the merging UCITS or the receiving UCITS respectively, must explain in plain language any terms or procedures relating to
(1) Where a UCITS scheme is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, its authorised fund manager must ensure that an up-to-date version of the key investor information document of the receiving UCITS is made available to the management company of the merging UCITS for the purpose of providing it to investors in that UCITS.(2) Where the key investor information document of the receiving UCITS has been amended for the purpose of (1), the authorised fund manager of the
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FSA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FSA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
This chapter also applies to a UK firm which wishes to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Gibraltar) Order 2001 provides that a UK firm is to be treated as having an entitlement corresponding to its EEA right, to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar under any of the Single Market Directives. So, references in this chapter to an EEA State or an EEA right include
This chapter does not apply to:(1) a firm established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; passporting by such a firm in or into the United Kingdom is a matter for its Home State regulator although guidance is given in 4SUP 13A4 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act);(2) other overseas firms (that is, overseas firms established outside the EEA); such firms are not entitled to passport into another EEA State and, where relevant, may need to obtain authorisation
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
The chapter also explains how a UK firm which has already established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, another EEA State, may change the details of its branch or of the cross border services it is providing: for example, where a UK firm wishes to establish additional branches in an EEA State in which it has already established a branch where this would result in a change to the details provided previously. Such changes are governed by the EEA Passport Rights
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the FSA in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).461010101010
If a person decides10 to acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1)4, he must obtain the FSA's approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the FSA has approved of it10is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).1010104610
6The FSA may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 190(1)of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:10(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed or which are admitted to listing on a designated investment exchange;;10(2) that
6Where the FSA approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the FSA when a change in control actually occurs; and(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.At that stage, the FSA may seek from the controller
A section 178 notice10 given to the FSA by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the FSA for the relevant application. 461010
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FSA] may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 302(1) of the Act. |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
The FSA will usually expect :(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an interest
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FSA that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person, or
If a person who performs a function on behalf of a UK recognised body is himself carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom , he will, unless he is a person to whom the general prohibition does not apply, need to be either an authorised person or an exempt person . The person to whom a function is delegated is not covered by the UK recognised body's exemption.
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FSA may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FSA may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
A firm will not be a member of a non-EEA sub-group unless it is1 also a member of a UK consolidation group. So the first step is to identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it isan institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country banking or investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a BIPRU
The firm should then identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it is an institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group; or(b) a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group
Having identified potential non-EEA sub-groups for each third country banking or investment services undertaking in its UK consolidation group the firm should then eliminate overlapping potential non-EEA sub-groups in the following way. If:(1) one potential non-EEA sub-group is 1contained within a wider potential non-EEA sub-group; and(2) the third country banking or investment services undertakings in the two potential non-EEA sub-groups are the same;then the smaller potential
If a UK consolidation group is headed by a parent financial holding company in a Member State the result of the elimination process may be that a firm'sUK consolidation group contains only one non-EEA sub-group and that the non-EEA sub-group is the same as the UK consolidation group. In theory that means that there are two sets of consolidation requirements, one in relation to the UK consolidation group and one in relation to the non-EEA sub-group. However as the UK consolidation
Even where the requirements for a non-EEA sub-group are absorbed into those for the UK consolidation group a firm should still make clear in its regulatory reporting that the consolidation figures relate to a UK consolidation group and a non-EEA sub-group and that they both contain the same members.
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the FSA contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country banking or investment services undertaking in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention here is
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme under section 264, section 270 or section 272 of the Act must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom in order to satisfy the requirements of COLL 9.4.2 R to COLL 9.4.6 R. (2) In this section, a facility is a place of business that complies with COLL 9.4.6 R (Place of facilities).
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person, for inspection (free of charge) and for the obtaining (free of charge, in the case of the documents at (c) and (d), and otherwise at no more than a reasonable charge) of copies in English of: (a) the instrument constituting the scheme;(b) any instrument amending the instrument constituting the scheme; (c) the latest prospectus (which must include the address where the facilities
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person where: (a) information in English can be obtained about prices of units in the scheme; and(b) a participant may redeem or arrange for redemption of units in the scheme and obtain payment. (2) An operator is treated as complying with paragraph (1) if it ensures participants may sell their units on an investment exchange at a price not significantly different from net asset value; and if so, must inform
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom at which the unitholder of a bearer certificate may obtain free of charge: (a) payment of dividends; and(b) details or copies of any notices which have been given or sent to participants in the scheme. (2) The operator must state:(a) the nature of the right represented by the units in the scheme; and(b) whether persons other than unitholders can vote at meetings of unitholders and, if so, who those persons are.
(1) The address of the facilities maintained by the operator in accordance with this section and the details of the facilities so maintained must be stated in the prospectus of the scheme.(2) The address of the facilities referred to in (1) must be the address of the operator's principal place of business in the United Kingdom, or, if there is no such address,, the alternative address in paragraph (3).(3) The alternative address is such convenient address as the operator determines,
(1) The purposes of this section are to:(a) provide UK recognised bodies with guidance regarding the provisions of PIDA; and(b) Encourage UK recognised bodies to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this section "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in that section;(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in good faith, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:(a) a criminal offence; or(b) a failure to comply with any legal
(1) UK recognised bodies are encouraged to consider adopting appropriate internal procedures which will encourage their workers with concerns to blow the whistle internally about matters which are relevant to the functions of the FSA.(2) In considering appropriate internal procedures, UK recognised bodiesmay find the guidance provided to firms in SYSC 18.2.2 G (2) and SYSC 18.2.2 G (3)1 helpful.1
A firm must include only the following types of undertaking in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter:(1) a BIPRU firm;(2) an institution;(3) a financial institution;(4) an asset management company;(5) a financial holding company; and(6) an ancillary services undertaking.
Although an undertaking falling outside BIPRU 8.5.1 R will not be included in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group it may be relevant in deciding whether one undertaking in the banking sector or the investment services sector is a subsidiary undertaking of another with the result that they should be included in the same UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group.
In carrying out the calculations for the purposes of this chapter a firm must only include the relevant proportion of an undertaking that is a member of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group:(1) by virtue of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship;(2) by virtue of an Article 134 relationship; or(3) because the group holds a participation in it.
In BIPRU 8.5.5 R, the relevant proportion is either:(1) (in the case of a participation) the proportion of shares issued by the undertaking held by the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group; or(2) (in the case of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship or an Article 134 relationship), such proportion (if any) as stated in the Part IV permission of the firm.
A firm may, having first notified the FSA in writing in accordance with SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification), exclude an institution, asset management company, financial institution or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group if the balance sheet total of that undertaking is less than the smaller of the following two amounts:(1) 10 million Euros;(2)
Article 73(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive allows the FSA to decide to exclude an institution, financial institution, asset management company or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter in the following circumstances:(1) where the head office of the undertaking concerned is situated in a country outside the
Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the MiFID4, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directives is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accor
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
4Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under MiFID is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, it must not:5(1) make a change in the details referred to in regulation 5A(1)(a); or5(2) use, for the first time, any tied agent to provide services in the United Kingdom; or5(3) cease to use tied agents to provide services in the United Kingdom;5unless it has complied with the relevant requirements in regulation 5A(3).5
A UK firm wishing to provide cross border services into a particular EEA State for the first time under an EEA right other than under the auction regulation7 must submit a notice in the form set out in:535(1) SUP 13 Annex 2 R5if the UK firm is passporting under 3MiFID;5 or53(1A) SUP 13 Annex 3 R if the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives; or5(2) SUP 13 Annex 4 R5if the UK firm is passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or55(3) SUP 13 Annex 5 R5if
(1) 7A UK firm wishing to provide a service into a particular EEA State for the first time under the auction regulation must inform the FSA of the information in (2) by email to emissionstrading@fsa.gov.uk prior to its provision of that service or whenever possible thereafter.(2) The information required by (1) is:(a) name of the firm and the FSAfirm reference number;(b) EEA state in which the service is or will be provided; and(c) the proposed commencement date of the service
4SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to UK pure reinsurers or a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the auction regulation7 as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under Reinsurance Directive or the auction regulation. However, the information required by SUP 13.5.2-A R assists the FSA's supervision of a UK firm's provision of a service in another EEA state under the auction regulation.7
(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, must submit any notice under SUP 13.5.1 R (1), SUP 13.5.1A R or SUP 13.5.2 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.535(a) 5[deleted]5(b) 5[deleted]5(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 13.5.1 R (1), SUP 13.5.1A R or SUP 13.5.2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).535(a) [deleted]55(b) [deleted]55(c) 5[deleted]53(d) 5[deleted]53(e) 5[deleted]5333(f) 5[deleted]5(3)
A notice of intention3 (other than one to establish a branch or provide services in another EEA state under the auction regulation)7 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must decide and be responsible for adopting and implementing all the arrangements and organisational decisions that are necessary to ensure compliance with rules drawn up by the EEA State in which that scheme is established, in implementation of its obligations under articles 19(3) and 19(4) of the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 19(6) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written agreement it has entered into with the depositary of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in articles 23 and 33 of the UCITS Directive; and(b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FSA. [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected.[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give the FSA the following information:(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms of
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FSA.
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FSA notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FSA is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.