Related provisions for PERG 9.5.4

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SYSC 4.4.5RRP

A firm must appropriately allocate to one or more individuals, in accordance with the following table, the functions of:

  1. (1)

    dealing with the apportionment of responsibilities under SYSC 4.4.3 R; and

  2. (2)

    overseeing the establishment and maintenance of systems and controls under SYSC 4.1.1 R.

    3. 1: Firm type

    2: Allocation of both functions must be to the following individual, if any (see Note):

    3: Allocation to one or more individuals selected from this column is compulsory if there is no allocation to an individual in column 2, but is otherwise optional and additional:

    (1) A firm which is a body corporate and is a member of a group, other than a firm in row (2)

    (1) the firm'schief executive (and all of them jointly, if more than one); or

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of:

    (a) the group; or

    (b) a group division within which some or all of the firm'sregulated activities fall

    (2) An incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm (note: only the functions in SYSC 4.4.5R (2) must be allocated)

    (not applicable)

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    (3) Any other firm

    the firm'schief executive (and all of them jointly, if more than one)

    the firm's and its group's:

    (1) directors; and

    (2) senior managers

    Note: Column 2 does not require the involvement of the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager in an aspect of corporate governance if that would be contrary to generally accepted principles of good corporate governance.
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals will nevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.
DISP 1.11.15RRP
For the purposes of DISP 1.11.13 R "individual member" includes a member which is a limited liability partnership or a body corporate whose members consist only of, or of the nominees for, a single natural person or a group of connected persons.
COLL 8.5.12ARRP
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund must take reasonable steps to ensure that no body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of that fund (the "maximum allowable").(2) Where the authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund becomes aware that a body corporate holds more than the maximum allowable, he must:(a) notify the body corporate of that event;(b) not pay any income distribution to the body corporate;
COLL 8.5.12BGRP
4Reasonable steps to monitor the maximum allowable include:(1) regularly reviewing the register; and(2) taking reasonable steps to ensure that unitholders are kept informed of the requirement that no body corporate may hold more than 10% of the net asset value of a property authorised investment fund.
COLL 6.2.23RRP
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund must take reasonable steps to ensure that no body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of that fund (the "maximum allowable").(2) Where the authorised fund manager of a property authorised investment fund becomes aware that a body corporate holds more than the maximum allowable, he must:(a) notify the body corporate of that event; (b) not pay any income distribution to the body corporate;
COLL 6.2.24GRP
4Reasonable steps to monitor the maximum allowable include:(1) regularly reviewing the register; and(2) taking reasonable steps to ensure that unitholders are kept informed of the requirement that no body corporate may hold more than 10% of the net asset value of a property authorised investment fund.
PERG 5.11.3GRP
The exclusions outlined in (1) to (7) were available to intermediaries (and in some cases insurance undertakings) acting in connection with life policies before 14 January 2005. In essence, however, the following exclusions do not apply if they concern transactions relating to contracts of insurance:(1) dealing in investments as agent with or through authorised persons (article 22 of the Regulated Activities Order (Deals with or through authorised persons));(2) arranging transactions
PERG 5.11.13AGRP
(1) 2There are two types of travel risks covered by PERG 5.11.13G (4)(b). The first type covers damage to, or loss of, baggage and other risks linked to the travel booked with the provider where that travel relates to attendance at an event organised or managed by that provider and the party seeking insurance is not an individual (acting in his private capacity) or a small business.(2) "Small business" means a sole trader, body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association
SUP 11.5.1RRP

Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))

(1)

The name of the firm;

(2)

the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;

(3)

a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5

(4)

any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.5
COLL 7.6.2RRP
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
PERG 5.12.11GRP
UK-based persons must obtain Part IV permission in relation to their insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom as one of the following:(1) a body corporate whose registered office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(2) a partnership or unincorporated association whose head office is situated in the United Kingdom; or(3) an individual (that is, a sole trader) whose residence is situated in the United Kingdom.The United Kingdom will, in each case, be the Home State
BIPRU 3.2.9RRP
A firm must assign each exposure to one of the following exposure classes:(1) claims or contingent claims on central governments or central banks;(2) claims or contingent claims on regional governments or local authorities;(3) claims or contingent claims on administrative bodies and non-commercial undertakings;(4) claims or contingent claims on multilateral development banks;(5) claims or contingent claims on international organisation;(6) claims or contingent claims on institutions;(7)
PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
SUP 15.6.7GRP
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the Authority: residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FSA with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FSA'srules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400 of the
COLL 8.3.4RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.3.2 R.

1

Document status

A statement that this document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date which shall be the date of the document.

2

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is either an ICVC or an AUT;

(3)

that the scheme is a qualified investor scheme;

(4)

where relevant, that the unitholders in an ICVC are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(5)

where relevant, the address of the ICVC's head office and the address in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(6)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FSA and, if the duration of the authorised fund is not unlimited, when it will or may terminate;

(7)

the base currency for the authorised fund;

(8)

where relevant, the maximum and minimum sizes of the ICVC's capital; and

(9)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund may be wound up under the rules in COLL and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up.

3

Investment objectives and policy

(1)

Sufficient information to enable a unitholder to ascertain:

(a)

the investment objectives of the authorised fund;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including:

(i)

the general nature of the portfolio and any intended specialisation;

(ii)

the policy for the spreading of risk in the scheme property; and

(iii)

the policy in relation to the exercise of borrowing powers;

(c)

a description of any restrictions in the assets in which investment may be made; and

(d)

the extent (if any) to which that investment policy does not envisage remaining fully invested at all times.

(2)

For investment in immovables :

(a)

the countries or territories of immovables in which the authorised fund may invest;

(b)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of immovables forming part of the scheme property; and

(c)

the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to the granting of options over immovables in the scheme property and the purchase of options on immovables.

(3)

If intended, whether the scheme property may consist of units in collective investment schemes ("second schemes") which are managed by or operated by the authorised fund manager or by one of its associates and a statement as:

(a)

to the basis of the maximum amount of the charges in respect of transactions in a second scheme; and

(b)

the extent to which any such charges will be reimbursed to the scheme.

(4)

If intended, whether the scheme may enter into stock lending transactions and, if so, what procedures will operate and what collateral will be required.

(5)

Where a scheme is a feeder scheme which (in respect of investment in units in a single collective investment scheme) is dedicated to units in a collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it;8

4

Distributions and accounting dates

Relevant details of accounting and distribution dates and a description of the procedures:

(1)

for determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid); and

(2)

relating to unclaimed distributions.

5

The characteristics of units in the authorised fund

Information as to:

(1)

the names of the classes of units in issue or available for issue and the rights attached to them in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(2)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these are; and

(3)

the circumstances where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required.

6

The authorised fund manager

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the date of its incorporation and if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease;

(4)

if it is a subsidiary, the name of its ultimate holding company and the country or territory in which that holding company is incorporated;

(5)

the address of its registered office, its head office, and, if different, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(6)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up;

(7)

for an ICVC, a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the authorised fund manager which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; and

(8)

for an AUT, the names of the directors of the manager.

7

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

Other than for the ACD:

(1)

the names and positions in the ICVC of the directors; and

(2)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of the directors.

8

The depositary

The following particulars of the depositary:

(1)

its name and the nature of its corporate form;

(2)

the country or territory of its incorporation;

(3)

the address of its registered office and the address of its head office if that is different from the address of its registered office; and

(4)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom.

9

The investment adviser

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund, its name and whether or not it is authorised by the FSA.

10

The auditor

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

11

The register of Unitholders

Details of the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders is kept and can be inspected by unitholders.

12

Payments out of the scheme property

The payments that may be made out of the scheme property to any person whether by way of remuneration for services, or reimbursement of expense and for each category of remuneration or expense, the following should be specified:

(1)

the current rates or amounts of such remuneration;

(2)

how the remuneration will be calculated and accrue and when it will be paid;

(3)

if notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager's intention to:

(a)

introduce a new category of remuneration for its services; or

(b)

increase the basis of any current charge; or

(c)

change the basis of the treatment of a payment from the capital property set out in COLL 8.5.13 R (2) (Payments);

particulars of that introduction or increase and when it will take place;

(4)

the types of any other charges and expenses that may be taken out of the scheme property; and

(5)

if, in accordance with COLL 8.5.13 R (2), all or part of the remuneration or expense are to be treated as a capital charge:

(a)

that fact; and

(b)

the basis of the charge which may be so treated

13

Dealing

Details of:

(1)

the dealing days and times in the dealing day on which the authorised fund manager will receive requests for the sale and redemption of units;

(2)

the procedures for effecting:

(a)

the issue and cancellation of units;

(b)

the sale and redemption of units; and

(c)

the settlement of transactions;

(3)

the steps required to be taken by a unitholder in redeeming units before he can receive the proceeds including any relevant notice periods and the circumstances and periods where a deferral of payment as provided in COLL 8.5.11 R (3) (Sale and redemption) may be applied;

(4)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(5)

the days and times in the day on which recalculation of the price will commence;

(6)

details of the minimum number or value of each type of unit in the authorised fund which:

(a)

any one person may hold; and

(b)

may be the subject of any one transaction of sale or redemption;

(7)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for, a redemption of units in specie;

(8)

the circumstances in which the further issue of units in any particular class may be limited and the procedures relating to this:66

(9)

the circumstances in which direct issue or cancellation of units by the ICVC or the trustee (as appropriate) may occur and the relevant procedures for such issues and cancellations; and66

(10)

6whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer.6

14

Valuation of scheme property

Details as to:

(1)

how frequently and at what times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued to determine the price at which units in the scheme may be purchased from or redeemed by the authorised fund manager and a description of any circumstance where the scheme property may be specially valued;

(2)

in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued, the basis on which it will be valued; and

(3)

how the price of units of each class will be determined, including whether a forward price or historic price basis is to be applied.

15

Sale and redemption charges

If the authorised fund manager makes any charges on sale or redemption of units, details of the charging structure and how notice will be provided to unitholders of any increase.

15A5

Property Authorised Investment Funds

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

16

General information

Details as to:

(1)

when annual and half- yearly reports will be published; and

(2)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained.

17

Information on the umbrella

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(1)

that a unitholder may exchange units in one sub-fund for units in another sub-fund and that such an exchange is treated as a redemption and sale;

(2)

what charges may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in other sub-funds;

(3)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(4)

in respect of each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the umbrella; and

(5)

for an ICVC, that the sub-funds are not "ring fenced" and in the event of an umbrella being unable to meet liabilities attributable to any particular sub-fund out of the assets attributable to that sub-fund, the remaining liabilities may have to be met out of the assets attributable to other sub-funds.

18

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(1)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(2)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

318A

Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle3

If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles is to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme.3

19

Additional information

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by the making of reasonable enquiries which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating.